WGU D444 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
V1 & V2 NEWEST 2026 TEST BANK|
D444 ADULT HEALTH 1 OA EXAM
WITH COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1:
A patient is admitted with a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which
nursing intervention is a priority for this patient?
A) Encouraging increased oral fluid intake
B) Administering a bolus of hypotonic IV fluids
C) Implementing seizure precautions
D) Increasing dietary sodium intake
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia.
This rapid electrolyte shift causes water to move into brain cells, leading
to cerebral edema and a high risk for seizures. Therefore, implementing
seizure precautions is the immediate safety priority.
Question 2:
A patient with a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is experiencing cardiac
dysrhythmias. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer potassium chloride IV
, B) Prepare the client for hemodialysis
C) Monitor the cardiac rhythm
D) Encourage oral intake of potassium-rich foods
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) can cause life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias. Cardiac monitoring is the priority to detect and
manage these potentially fatal rhythms.
Question 3:
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops fever, chills, and back
pain. What is the priority action?
A) Slow the infusion rate
B) Stop the transfusion immediately
C) Administer acetaminophen as prescribed
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms indicate a possible acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The transfusion must be stopped immediately to
prevent further harm. The IV line must be kept patent with normal saline,
but stopping the transfusion is the first and most critical step.
Question 4:
Which IV solution is the only one compatible with blood products?
A) Lactated Ringer's
B) 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
C) 0.45% Sodium Chloride
D) 0.9% Sodium Chloride
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: Normal Saline (0.9% Sodium Chloride) is the only fluid
compatible with blood products. Using other fluids can cause hemolysis or
clotting of the blood product.
Question 5:
A patient with a platelet count of 15,000/mm³ has petechiae on the
extremities. Which action should be included in the plan of care?
A) Apply warm compresses to petechiae
B) Administer aspirin for fever
C) Use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care
D) Encourage the patient to engage in contact sports
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count this low indicates severe thrombocytopenia.
Using a soft-bristled toothbrush minimizes the risk of oral mucosal
bleeding. Aspirin should be avoided as it can further impair platelet
function.
🧠 Endocrine Disorders
Question 6:
Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find in a patient
experiencing Cushing's syndrome?
A) Weight loss and hypotension
B) Hyperpigmentation and hyperkalemia
C) Truncal obesity and moon face
D) Tachycardia and tremors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome results from prolonged exposure to high
cortisol levels. This leads to characteristic central weight gain (truncal
, obesity), a rounded 'moon face', and a 'buffalo hump' due to fat
redistribution.
Question 7:
A patient with Type 1 diabetes is found unconscious and clammy. The
blood glucose is 42 mg/dL. What is the immediate nursing action?
A) Administer 15g of simple carbohydrates orally
B) Administer IV Glucagon or Dextrose 50%
C) Give the patient a diet soda to drink
D) Administer the scheduled dose of insulin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood glucose of 42 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia.
Because the patient is unconscious, they cannot safely swallow oral
medications. Parenteral administration of dextrose (D50) or glucagon is
required to rapidly raise the blood glucose level.
Question 8:
A patient with type 2 diabetes and hypertension has a urine albumin-to-
creatinine ratio of 300 mg/g. Which class of medication is most beneficial
to slow nephropathy progression?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Beta blocker
C) Thiazide diuretic
D) Calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (or ARBs) reduce intraglomerular pressure and
proteinuria, slowing diabetic kidney disease progression, even without
hypertension. Beta blockers and thiazides do not have this specific
renoprotective effect.
V1 & V2 NEWEST 2026 TEST BANK|
D444 ADULT HEALTH 1 OA EXAM
WITH COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1:
A patient is admitted with a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which
nursing intervention is a priority for this patient?
A) Encouraging increased oral fluid intake
B) Administering a bolus of hypotonic IV fluids
C) Implementing seizure precautions
D) Increasing dietary sodium intake
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia.
This rapid electrolyte shift causes water to move into brain cells, leading
to cerebral edema and a high risk for seizures. Therefore, implementing
seizure precautions is the immediate safety priority.
Question 2:
A patient with a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is experiencing cardiac
dysrhythmias. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer potassium chloride IV
, B) Prepare the client for hemodialysis
C) Monitor the cardiac rhythm
D) Encourage oral intake of potassium-rich foods
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) can cause life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias. Cardiac monitoring is the priority to detect and
manage these potentially fatal rhythms.
Question 3:
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops fever, chills, and back
pain. What is the priority action?
A) Slow the infusion rate
B) Stop the transfusion immediately
C) Administer acetaminophen as prescribed
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms indicate a possible acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The transfusion must be stopped immediately to
prevent further harm. The IV line must be kept patent with normal saline,
but stopping the transfusion is the first and most critical step.
Question 4:
Which IV solution is the only one compatible with blood products?
A) Lactated Ringer's
B) 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
C) 0.45% Sodium Chloride
D) 0.9% Sodium Chloride
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: Normal Saline (0.9% Sodium Chloride) is the only fluid
compatible with blood products. Using other fluids can cause hemolysis or
clotting of the blood product.
Question 5:
A patient with a platelet count of 15,000/mm³ has petechiae on the
extremities. Which action should be included in the plan of care?
A) Apply warm compresses to petechiae
B) Administer aspirin for fever
C) Use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care
D) Encourage the patient to engage in contact sports
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count this low indicates severe thrombocytopenia.
Using a soft-bristled toothbrush minimizes the risk of oral mucosal
bleeding. Aspirin should be avoided as it can further impair platelet
function.
🧠 Endocrine Disorders
Question 6:
Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find in a patient
experiencing Cushing's syndrome?
A) Weight loss and hypotension
B) Hyperpigmentation and hyperkalemia
C) Truncal obesity and moon face
D) Tachycardia and tremors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome results from prolonged exposure to high
cortisol levels. This leads to characteristic central weight gain (truncal
, obesity), a rounded 'moon face', and a 'buffalo hump' due to fat
redistribution.
Question 7:
A patient with Type 1 diabetes is found unconscious and clammy. The
blood glucose is 42 mg/dL. What is the immediate nursing action?
A) Administer 15g of simple carbohydrates orally
B) Administer IV Glucagon or Dextrose 50%
C) Give the patient a diet soda to drink
D) Administer the scheduled dose of insulin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood glucose of 42 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia.
Because the patient is unconscious, they cannot safely swallow oral
medications. Parenteral administration of dextrose (D50) or glucagon is
required to rapidly raise the blood glucose level.
Question 8:
A patient with type 2 diabetes and hypertension has a urine albumin-to-
creatinine ratio of 300 mg/g. Which class of medication is most beneficial
to slow nephropathy progression?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Beta blocker
C) Thiazide diuretic
D) Calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (or ARBs) reduce intraglomerular pressure and
proteinuria, slowing diabetic kidney disease progression, even without
hypertension. Beta blockers and thiazides do not have this specific
renoprotective effect.
