NR 508 WEEK 8 QUIZ / NR508 WEEK 8 QUIZ: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING |100 Q/A

NR 508 WEEK 8 QUIZ / NR508 WEEK 8 QUIZ: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING Question 1. Question : The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the: Medulla Cortex Pyramids Columns Question 2. Question : During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? B lymphocytes proliferate. The nodes are inflamed. The nodes fill with purulent exudate. The nodes are not properly functioning. Question 3. Question : What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? Cyanocobalamin by oral intake Vitamin B12 by injection Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection Folate by oral intake Question 4. Question : Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? Iron Erythropoietin Cobalamin (vitamin B12) Folate Question 5. Question : What is the end-product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine? Glucose Ketones Bile Urea Question 6. Question : What local complication of a gonococcal infection is diagnosed in approximately 10% of affected women? Acute salpingitis Cystitis Vaginitis Cervicitis Question 7. Question : The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? IgE IgG IgM T cells Question 8. Question : Treatment for polycythemia vera involves which of the following? Therapeutic phlebotomy and radioactive phosphorus Restoration of blood volume by plasma expanders Administration of cyanocobalamin Blood transfusions Question 9. Question : What term is used to identify the movement of fluids and solutes from the tubular lumen to the peritubular capillary plasma? Tubular secretion Ultrafiltration Tubular reabsorption Tubular excretion Question 10. Question : Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because: Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling. The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults. The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults. The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively. Question 11. Question : Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long? 6 to 8 weeks 8 to 12 months Until the iron level is normal The rest of one’s life Question 12. Question : Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia? Increasing rate and depth of breathing Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin Question 13. Question : Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? Right atrium Left atrium Left ventricle Right ventricle Question 14. Question : Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? Uromodulin Nephrin Urodilatin Cystatin Question 15. Question : Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease? Syphilis Gonorrhea Human papillomavirus Pelvic inflammatory disease Question 16. Question : Where are alveolar macrophages found? Skin Breasts Gastrointestinal tract Lungs Question 17. Question : Which renal change is found in older adults? Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Sharp decline in renal blood flow Decrease in the number of nephrons Decrease in urine output Question 18. Question : At birth, which statement is true? Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. Question 19. Question : When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? T-cell immunity Alloimmunity Fetal immunity Autoimmunity Question 20. Question : What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Traumatic injury Cardiovascular disease Infectious disease Question 21. Question : Where in the lung does gas exchange occur? Trachea Segmental bronchi Alveolocapillary membrane Main bronchus Question 22. Question : Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? V VIII IX X Question 23. Question : Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it: Extends vertically from the trachea. Is narrower than the left mainstem bronchus. Comes into contact with food and drink first. Is located at the site where the bronchi bifurcate. Question 24. Question : What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain? Kernicterus Icterus neonatorum Jaundice Icterus gravis neonatorum Question 25. Question : An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 26. Question : Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency Question 27. Question : On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive? 10% to 20% 15% to 20% 20% to 25% 30% to 35% Question 28. Question : Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process? Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils Erythrocytes Question 29. Question : Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of: Epinephrine and aldosterone Norepinephrine and cortisol Epinephrine and norepinephrine Acetylcholine and cortisol Question 30. Question : Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies attacking which type of cells? Neutrophils Eosinophils Platelets Basophils Question 31. Question : A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: Hemolytic shock Anaphylaxis Necrotizing vasculitis Systemic erythematosus Question 32. Question : Where are Langerhans cells found? Skin Intestinal lining Kidney Thyroid Question 33. Question : Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? Superior vena cava Pulmonary veins Pulmonary artery Coronary veins Question 34. Question : The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: Infectivity Toxigenicity Pathogenicity Virulence Question 35. Question : Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Systemic lupus erythematosus Myasthenia gravis Only the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA produce tissue damage in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Question 36. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 37. Question : What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? Encephalocele Meningocele Spina bifida occulta Myelomeningocele Question 38. Question : What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children? Chronic respiratory infections Adenotonsillar hypertrophy Obligatory mouth breathing Paradoxic breathing Question 39. Question : How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. Question 40. Question : Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? Yeast Cancer cells Bacteria Fungus Question 41. Question : What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Nausea Fatigue Hair loss Weight loss Question 42. Question : What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? Refractory Hyperpolarization Threshold Sinoatrial (SA) Question 43. Question : In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is _____ days. 30 to 50; 80 60 to 80; 120 90 to 110; 140 120 to 130; 150 Question 44. Question : Which vitamin improves the absorption of oral iron taken to treat iron deficiency anemia in children? A B C E Question 45. Question : Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Question 46. Question : Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age. Question 47. Question : What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing? Anencephaly Myelodysplasia Cranial meningocele Hydrocephaly Question 48. Question : Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection? Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Influenzavirus Adenoviruses Rhinovirus Question 49. Question : The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a BMI of: 18.5 to 24.9 25 to 29.9 30 to 39.9 40 to 50.9 Question 50. Question : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection? The virus does not circulate in the blood. It does not have antibody receptors. It resists agglutination. The virus is a soluble antigen. Question 51. Question : Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone? Tendon Ligament Bursa Mesentery Question 52. Question : The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? Thyroxine Insulin Cortisol. Antidiuretic hormone Question 53. Question : What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis? Hypospadias Epispadias Hyperspadias Chordee Question 54. Question : Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? Heat cramps Heat stroke Malignant hyperthermia Heat exhaustion Question 55. Question : The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations Autoantibodies and obesity Obesity and positive family history HLA associations and positive family history Question 56. Question : Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss? Evaporation Radiation Convection Conduction Question 57. Question : An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? Congenital aganglionic megacolon Intussusception Malrotation Volvulus Question 58. Question : An individual’s genetic makeup is referred to as his or her: Phenotype Genotype Heterozygous locus Homozygous locus Question 59. Question : Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles? Sodium Potassium Calcium Magnesium Question 60. Question : Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty? Inhibin Leptin Activin Follistatin Question 61. Question : What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck? Down Cri du chat Turner Klinefelter Question 62. Question : When a woman’s uterus is assessed as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen, which grade of prolapse does this indicate? 0 1 2 3 Question 63. Question : An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident? Chorionic Alpha fetoprotein Amniotic Embryonic Question 64. Question : Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus Hypertension Polycythemia Smoking Question 65. Question : Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? Paroxysmal Tardive Hyperkinesia Cardive Question 66. Question : Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in panic disorders? Norepinephrine Serotonin Dopamine Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Question 67. Question : Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder? Obstructive sleep apnea Upper airway resistance syndrome Somnambulism Narcolepsy Question 68. Question : A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain? Frontal Temporal Parietal Occipital Question 69. Question : It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS): Is preceded by a viral illness. Involves a deficit in acetylcholine. Results in asymmetric paralysis. Is an outcome of HIV. Question 70. Question : Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? Hemorrhagic Thrombotic Embolic Lacunar Question 71. Question : What is the first sign of puberty in girls? Breast enlargement Growth of pubic hair Menstruation Vaginal discharge Question 72. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? 3 6 9 12 Question 73. Question : What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous, having A and B alleles as codominant? A B O AB Question 74. Question : What is the leading cause of infertility in women? Pelvic inflammatory disease Endometriosis Salpingitis Polycystic ovary syndrome Question 75. Question : Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? Increased consumption of dairy produces Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C Decreased consumption of foods high in fat Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring Question 76. Question : When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone? Pharmacologic Permissive Synergistic Direct Question 77. Question : Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers? Slow contraction speed Fast conduction velocities Profuse capillary supply Oxidative metabolism Question 78. Question : How do the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults? JRA begins insidiously with systemic signs of inflammation. JRA predominantly affects large joints. JRA has more severe joint pain than adult RA. JRA has a rapid onset of generalized aches as the first symptom. Question 79. Question : The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? Ovarian Lung Uterine Pancreatic Question 80. Question : What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? Limbic system Parietal lobe Thalamus Hypothalamus Question 81. Question : The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: Computed tomographic (CT) scan Cerebrospinal fluid analysis Skull x-ray studies Health history Question 82. Question : How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature? The release of epinephrine causes shivering. It affects muscle tone. It raises the metabolic rate. It increases and strengthens the heart rate. Question 83. Question : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption in the hypothalamus Disruption of the pituitary Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Physiologic hormonal delays Question 84. Question : Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? Dementia syndrome Delirium Alzheimer disease Parkinson disease Question 85. Question : Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria? Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Haemophilus Question 86. Question : Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system? Central Parasympathetic Sympathetic Somatic Question 87. Question : The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (wolffian system) in utero? Estrogen Progesterone Growth hormone Testosterone Question 88. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor? Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Mammary glands Posterior pituitary Question 89. Question : The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term? Relativity Survivability Prevalence Incidence Question 90. Question : The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 91. Question : What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language? Agnosia Aphasia Akinesia Dysphasia Question 92. Question : Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease? Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow Inflammation of the anterior cruciate ligament Bursitis of the subscapular bursa in the glenohumeral joint Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon Question 93. Question : In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than how many degrees result in decreased pulmonary function? 40 50 60 80 Question 94. Question : What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis? Reduced excretion of purines Overproduction of uric acid Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels Overproduction of proteoglycans Question 95. Question : Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep? Non-REM Light REM Delta wave Question 96. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s: Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Frontal lobe Basal ganglia Question 97. Question : Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of: Decreased production of aqueous humor Increased production of vitreous humor Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor Excessive destruction of vitreous humor Question 98. Question : Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive? Stress Greenstick Insufficiency Pathologic Question 99. Question : Which statement is true regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production? Luteinizing hormone has no apparent action in a man. In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant. Estradiol is not produced in a man. In a man, gonadotropin-releasing hormone does not cause the release of follicle stimulating hormone. Question 100. Question : DNA formation occurs in which of the cell’s structures? Nucleus Cytoplasm Organelle Membrane NR 508 WEEK 8 QUIZ / NR508 WEEK 8 QUIZ: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING |100 Q/A