M
ATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING
— ACTUAL EXAM WITH
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+| ||PROFESSOR VERIFIED||
||BRANDNEW!!!||2026!!!!
A client at 34 weeks gestation is admitted with painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing action is the
priority?
A. Perform a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation.
B. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section
immediately.
C. Withhold vaginal examinations and monitor maternal and
fetal status.
D. Administer oxytocin to stimulate uterine contractions.
,✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C. Withhold vaginal examinations
and monitor maternal and fetal status.
RATIONALE: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third
trimester is a classic hallmark of placenta previa, a condition in
which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical os.
In placenta previa, performing a vaginal examination is strictly
contraindicated because digital examination of the cervix can
disrupt the placenta and trigger a catastrophic hemorrhage that is
life-threatening to both the mother and the fetus. The immediate
priority is to avoid any procedure that may worsen bleeding while
closely monitoring maternal vital signs, uterine activity, and fetal
heart rate via continuous electronic fetal monitoring. Oxytocin is
not indicated at this time as uterine stimulation could worsen
hemorrhage and fetal compromise. Emergency cesarean section
may ultimately be necessary but is not the immediate first nursing
action — assessment and stabilization come first. Keeping the
client at rest, ensuring IV access, typing and cross-matching
blood, and notifying the provider are all essential concurrent
actions.
,During a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR)
baseline is 130 bpm with no accelerations noted over 20
minutes. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Document the finding as a reactive NST and discharge the
client.
B. Apply acoustic stimulation to the maternal abdomen for
approximately 3 seconds.
C. Immediately prepare the client for an emergency cesarean
delivery.
D. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 10 L/min.
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: B. Apply acoustic stimulation to the
maternal abdomen for approximately 3 seconds.
RATIONALE: A nonstress test is considered reactive (reassuring)
when there are at least two FHR accelerations of 15 bpm above
baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds, within a 20-minute window.
When no accelerations are noted within the initial 20-minute
period, the fetus may be in a sleep cycle. The appropriate
intervention before declaring the NST nonreactive is to apply
vibroacoustic (acoustic) stimulation to the maternal abdomen for
approximately 3 seconds using an artificial larynx device. This
stimulus is designed to arouse the fetus from a sleep state, which
is a normal fetal state, and elicit accelerations. If accelerations are
, produced following the stimulus, the NST is then considered
reactive. Declaring it nonreactive and taking immediate action
such as cesarean delivery would be premature without first
attempting to awaken the fetus. Oxygen administration is
appropriate for late or variable decelerations indicating fetal
compromise, not for an NST without accelerations.
A postpartum client is found to have a boggy uterus and a
blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg. The provider orders
methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.2 mg orally. Which nursing
action is correct?
A. Administer the medication as ordered because uterine atony
is the priority concern.
B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider of the
elevated blood pressure.
C. Administer the medication and then reassess blood
pressure in 30 minutes.
D. Dilute the medication in 50 mL of normal saline before
administration.
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: B. Withhold the medication and
notify the provider of the elevated blood pressure.
ATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING
— ACTUAL EXAM WITH
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+| ||PROFESSOR VERIFIED||
||BRANDNEW!!!||2026!!!!
A client at 34 weeks gestation is admitted with painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing action is the
priority?
A. Perform a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation.
B. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section
immediately.
C. Withhold vaginal examinations and monitor maternal and
fetal status.
D. Administer oxytocin to stimulate uterine contractions.
,✔ CORRECT ANSWER: C. Withhold vaginal examinations
and monitor maternal and fetal status.
RATIONALE: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third
trimester is a classic hallmark of placenta previa, a condition in
which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical os.
In placenta previa, performing a vaginal examination is strictly
contraindicated because digital examination of the cervix can
disrupt the placenta and trigger a catastrophic hemorrhage that is
life-threatening to both the mother and the fetus. The immediate
priority is to avoid any procedure that may worsen bleeding while
closely monitoring maternal vital signs, uterine activity, and fetal
heart rate via continuous electronic fetal monitoring. Oxytocin is
not indicated at this time as uterine stimulation could worsen
hemorrhage and fetal compromise. Emergency cesarean section
may ultimately be necessary but is not the immediate first nursing
action — assessment and stabilization come first. Keeping the
client at rest, ensuring IV access, typing and cross-matching
blood, and notifying the provider are all essential concurrent
actions.
,During a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR)
baseline is 130 bpm with no accelerations noted over 20
minutes. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Document the finding as a reactive NST and discharge the
client.
B. Apply acoustic stimulation to the maternal abdomen for
approximately 3 seconds.
C. Immediately prepare the client for an emergency cesarean
delivery.
D. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 10 L/min.
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: B. Apply acoustic stimulation to the
maternal abdomen for approximately 3 seconds.
RATIONALE: A nonstress test is considered reactive (reassuring)
when there are at least two FHR accelerations of 15 bpm above
baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds, within a 20-minute window.
When no accelerations are noted within the initial 20-minute
period, the fetus may be in a sleep cycle. The appropriate
intervention before declaring the NST nonreactive is to apply
vibroacoustic (acoustic) stimulation to the maternal abdomen for
approximately 3 seconds using an artificial larynx device. This
stimulus is designed to arouse the fetus from a sleep state, which
is a normal fetal state, and elicit accelerations. If accelerations are
, produced following the stimulus, the NST is then considered
reactive. Declaring it nonreactive and taking immediate action
such as cesarean delivery would be premature without first
attempting to awaken the fetus. Oxygen administration is
appropriate for late or variable decelerations indicating fetal
compromise, not for an NST without accelerations.
A postpartum client is found to have a boggy uterus and a
blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg. The provider orders
methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.2 mg orally. Which nursing
action is correct?
A. Administer the medication as ordered because uterine atony
is the priority concern.
B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider of the
elevated blood pressure.
C. Administer the medication and then reassess blood
pressure in 30 minutes.
D. Dilute the medication in 50 mL of normal saline before
administration.
✔ CORRECT ANSWER: B. Withhold the medication and
notify the provider of the elevated blood pressure.
