NURS 5432 FNP 1 | Module 1-6 and
Midterm Exam | Actual Questions and
Answers | winter 2026 | 100% Correct
– UTA.
1. The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation defines four
core roles. Which of the following is NOT one of those roles?
A. Certified Nurse Practitioner (CNP)
B. Clinical Nurse Specialist (CNS)
C. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)
D. Nurse Educator
Answer: D (Nurse Educator)
Rationale: The Consensus Model (2008) recognizes CNP, CNS,
CRNA, and Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM). Nurse Educator is an
important role but is not one of the four APRN licensure roles.
2. Under the Consensus Model, all APRNs must be prepared at
a minimum of which degree level?
A. Associate’s degree in nursing
B. Bachelor’s degree in nursing
C. Master’s degree
D. Doctorate
Answer: C (Master’s degree)
Rationale: The model requires graduate-level preparation
(master’s or post-master’s certificate) for entry into APRN practice,
,with a move toward DNP by 2025 recommended but not
universally mandated.
3. Which of the following is a requirement for APRN
licensure, certification, and education under the Consensus
Model?
A. Independent practice in all 50 states
B. A single national certification exam for each population focus
C. Completion of 2,000 clinical hours during graduate training
D. Prescriptive authority limited to Schedule II drugs
Answer: B
Rationale: The model calls for one national certifying exam per
population focus (e.g., FNP, Adult-Gero CNS). Clinical hours vary
by program; no set national hour requirement exists.
4. An FNP is seeing a 70-year-old patient with complex
comorbidities. The FNP recognizes that their scope of practice
is defined primarily by:
A. Hospital bylaws only
B. State Nurse Practice Act and board of nursing rules
C. The Consensus Model only
D. The American Nurses Association Code of Ethics
Answer: B
Rationale: Scope of practice is legally defined by the state’s
Nurse Practice Act and regulations. The Consensus Model
provides a framework but is not legally binding.
5. A newly graduated FNP moves from Texas (restricted
practice) to a full-practice authority state. Which statement is
true?
,A. They must complete a second residency.
B. They can practice independently without a collaborative
agreement.
C. They lose their certification.
D. They cannot prescribe medications.
Answer: B
Rationale: In full-practice authority states (e.g., Washington,
Oregon), FNPs can practice independently after licensure. Texas is
a restricted practice state requiring a collaborative agreement.
Module 2 – Pediatric Primary Care
6. A 2-month-old infant is brought in for well-child visit.
Which immunization is NOT recommended at this age in the
standard CDC schedule?
A. DTaP
B. Hib
C. MMR
D. PCV13
Answer: C (MMR)
Rationale: MMR is first given at 12-15 months. At 2 months,
DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV13, and RV are recommended.
7. A 4-year-old child has a fever of 102°F, rhinorrhea, and a
red, nonproductive cough for 2 days. Mom asks about
antibiotics. What is the best response?
A. Antibiotics are needed for all fevers in children.
, B. Viral URI does not require antibiotics; treat symptoms.
C. Amoxicillin should be started empirically.
D. Chest X-ray is always required.
Answer: B
Rationale: Most febrile URIs in children are viral. Antibiotics are
not indicated and contribute to resistance. Symptomatic care
(hydration, antipyretics) is appropriate.
8. A 6-month-old infant is noted to have head lag when
pulled to sit. This finding suggests:
A. Normal development for this age
B. Possible gross motor delay – should be evaluated further
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Benign variant, no follow-up needed
Answer: B
Rationale: Head lag should resolve by 5-6 months. Persistent
head lag at 6 months requires developmental screening and
possible referral.
9. A 15-month-old toddler refuses to walk and pulls to stand
but cruises. The FNP’s best action is:
A. Reassure parents, re-evaluate at 18 months.
B. Order lower extremity X-rays.
C. Refer immediately to orthopedics.
D. Diagnose cerebral palsy.
Answer: A
Rationale: Many toddlers walk independently by 15 months, but
cruising is still within normal range. Reassess at 18 months if not
walking.
Midterm Exam | Actual Questions and
Answers | winter 2026 | 100% Correct
– UTA.
1. The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation defines four
core roles. Which of the following is NOT one of those roles?
A. Certified Nurse Practitioner (CNP)
B. Clinical Nurse Specialist (CNS)
C. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)
D. Nurse Educator
Answer: D (Nurse Educator)
Rationale: The Consensus Model (2008) recognizes CNP, CNS,
CRNA, and Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM). Nurse Educator is an
important role but is not one of the four APRN licensure roles.
2. Under the Consensus Model, all APRNs must be prepared at
a minimum of which degree level?
A. Associate’s degree in nursing
B. Bachelor’s degree in nursing
C. Master’s degree
D. Doctorate
Answer: C (Master’s degree)
Rationale: The model requires graduate-level preparation
(master’s or post-master’s certificate) for entry into APRN practice,
,with a move toward DNP by 2025 recommended but not
universally mandated.
3. Which of the following is a requirement for APRN
licensure, certification, and education under the Consensus
Model?
A. Independent practice in all 50 states
B. A single national certification exam for each population focus
C. Completion of 2,000 clinical hours during graduate training
D. Prescriptive authority limited to Schedule II drugs
Answer: B
Rationale: The model calls for one national certifying exam per
population focus (e.g., FNP, Adult-Gero CNS). Clinical hours vary
by program; no set national hour requirement exists.
4. An FNP is seeing a 70-year-old patient with complex
comorbidities. The FNP recognizes that their scope of practice
is defined primarily by:
A. Hospital bylaws only
B. State Nurse Practice Act and board of nursing rules
C. The Consensus Model only
D. The American Nurses Association Code of Ethics
Answer: B
Rationale: Scope of practice is legally defined by the state’s
Nurse Practice Act and regulations. The Consensus Model
provides a framework but is not legally binding.
5. A newly graduated FNP moves from Texas (restricted
practice) to a full-practice authority state. Which statement is
true?
,A. They must complete a second residency.
B. They can practice independently without a collaborative
agreement.
C. They lose their certification.
D. They cannot prescribe medications.
Answer: B
Rationale: In full-practice authority states (e.g., Washington,
Oregon), FNPs can practice independently after licensure. Texas is
a restricted practice state requiring a collaborative agreement.
Module 2 – Pediatric Primary Care
6. A 2-month-old infant is brought in for well-child visit.
Which immunization is NOT recommended at this age in the
standard CDC schedule?
A. DTaP
B. Hib
C. MMR
D. PCV13
Answer: C (MMR)
Rationale: MMR is first given at 12-15 months. At 2 months,
DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV13, and RV are recommended.
7. A 4-year-old child has a fever of 102°F, rhinorrhea, and a
red, nonproductive cough for 2 days. Mom asks about
antibiotics. What is the best response?
A. Antibiotics are needed for all fevers in children.
, B. Viral URI does not require antibiotics; treat symptoms.
C. Amoxicillin should be started empirically.
D. Chest X-ray is always required.
Answer: B
Rationale: Most febrile URIs in children are viral. Antibiotics are
not indicated and contribute to resistance. Symptomatic care
(hydration, antipyretics) is appropriate.
8. A 6-month-old infant is noted to have head lag when
pulled to sit. This finding suggests:
A. Normal development for this age
B. Possible gross motor delay – should be evaluated further
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Benign variant, no follow-up needed
Answer: B
Rationale: Head lag should resolve by 5-6 months. Persistent
head lag at 6 months requires developmental screening and
possible referral.
9. A 15-month-old toddler refuses to walk and pulls to stand
but cruises. The FNP’s best action is:
A. Reassure parents, re-evaluate at 18 months.
B. Order lower extremity X-rays.
C. Refer immediately to orthopedics.
D. Diagnose cerebral palsy.
Answer: A
Rationale: Many toddlers walk independently by 15 months, but
cruising is still within normal range. Reassess at 18 months if not
walking.
