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NUR417 LATEST EXAM 4 SOLVED Test Bank with 200+ Practice Questions and Correct Verified Answers

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NUR417 LATEST EXAM 4 SOLVED Test Bank with 200+ Practice Questions and Correct Verified Answers Which patient diagnosis or treatment is most consistent with prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)? A. IV tobramycin B. Incompatible blood transfusion C. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis D. Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm D A dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm is a prerenal cause of AKI because it can decrease renal artery perfusion and therefore the glomerular filtrate rate. Aminoglycoside antibiotic administration, a hemolytic blood transfusion reaction, and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis are intrarenal causes of AKI. NUR417 LATEST EXAM A+ TEST BANK 2 During hemodialysis, the patient develops light-headedness and nausea. What should the nurse do first? A. Give hypertonic saline. B. Initiate a blood transfusion. C. Decrease the rate of fluid removal. D. Administer antiemetic medications. C The patient is having hypotension from a rapid removal of vascular volume. The rate and volume of fluid removal will be decreased, and 0.9% saline solution may be infused. Hypertonic saline is not used because of the high sodium load. A blood transfusion is not indicated. Antiemetic medications may help the nausea but would not help the hypovolemia. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on positive pressure ventilation (PPV). The patient’s cardiac index is 1.4 L/min and pulmonary artery wedge pressure is 8 mm Hg. What order by the provider would the nurse to question? A. Increase PEEP from 10 to 15 cm H2O B. Start a dobutamine infusion at 3 mcg/kg/min. C. Give 1 unit of packed RBCs over the next 2 hours. D. Change the maintenance IV rate from 75 to 125 mL/hr. NUR417 LATEST EXAM A+ TEST BANK 3 A Patients on PPV and PEEP often have decreased cardiac output (CO) and cardiac index (CI). High levels of PEEP increase intrathoracic pressure and cause decreased venous return which results in decreased CO. Interventions to improve CO include lowering the PEEP, giving crystalloid fluids or colloid solutions, and use of inotropic drugs (e.g., dobutamine, dopamine). Packed red blood cells may also be administered to improve CO and oxygenation if the hemoglobin is less than 9 or 10 mg/dL. The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple fractured ribs from a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment findings would be early indications that the patient is developing respiratory failure? A. Tachycardia and pursed lip breathing B. Kussmaul respirations and hypotension C. Frequent position changes and agitation D. Cyanosis and increased capillary refill time C A change in mental status is an early indication of respiratory failure. The brain is sensitive to variations in oxygenation, arterial carbon dioxide levels, and acid base balance. Restlessness, confusion, agitation, and combative behavior suggest inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain.

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NUR417 LATEST EXAM




NUR417 LATEST EXAM 4
2025- 2026 SOLVED Test
Bank with 200+ Practice Questions and
Correct Verified Answers


Which patient diagnosis or treatment is most consistent with prerenal acute
kidney injury (AKI)?
A. IV tobramycin
B. Incompatible blood transfusion
C. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
D. Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm


D
A dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm is a prerenal cause of AKI because it can
decrease renal artery perfusion and therefore the glomerular filtrate rate.
Aminoglycoside antibiotic administration, a hemolytic blood transfusion
reaction, and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis are intrarenal causes of AKI.
A+ TEST BANK 1

, NUR417 LATEST EXAM
During hemodialysis, the patient develops light-headedness and nausea. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Give hypertonic saline.
B. Initiate a blood transfusion.
C. Decrease the rate of fluid removal.
D. Administer antiemetic medications.




C
The patient is having hypotension from a rapid removal of vascular volume. The
rate and volume of fluid removal will be decreased, and 0.9% saline solution may
be infused. Hypertonic saline is not used because of the high sodium load. A
blood transfusion is not indicated. Antiemetic medications may help the nausea
but would not help the hypovolemia.




A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on positive
pressure ventilation (PPV). The patient’s cardiac index is 1.4 L/min and
pulmonary artery wedge pressure is 8 mm Hg. What order by the provider
would the nurse to question?
A. Increase PEEP from 10 to 15 cm H2O
B. Start a dobutamine infusion at 3 mcg/kg/min.
C. Give 1 unit of packed RBCs over the next 2 hours.
D. Change the maintenance IV rate from 75 to 125 mL/hr.




A+ TEST BANK 2

, NUR417 LATEST EXAM
A
Patients on PPV and PEEP often have decreased cardiac output (CO) and cardiac
index (CI). High levels of PEEP increase intrathoracic pressure and cause
decreased venous return which results in decreased CO. Interventions to
improve CO include lowering the PEEP, giving crystalloid fluids or colloid
solutions, and use of inotropic drugs (e.g., dobutamine, dopamine). Packed red
blood cells may also be administered to improve CO and oxygenation if the
hemoglobin is less than 9 or 10 mg/dL.




The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple fractured ribs from a motor vehicle
crash. Which assessment findings would be early indications that the patient is
developing respiratory failure?
A. Tachycardia and pursed lip breathing
B. Kussmaul respirations and hypotension
C. Frequent position changes and agitation
D. Cyanosis and increased capillary refill time




C
A change in mental status is an early indication of respiratory failure. The brain is
sensitive to variations in oxygenation, arterial carbon dioxide levels, and acid-
base balance. Restlessness, confusion, agitation, and combative behavior
suggest inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain.




A+ TEST BANK 3

, NUR417 LATEST EXAM
When caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS),
which finding indicates therapy is appropriate?
A. Arterial pH is 7.32
B. PaO2 is greater than or equal to 60 mm Hg
C. PEEP increased to 20 cm H2O caused BP to fall to 80/40
D. No change in PaO2 when patient is turned from supine to prone position




B
The overall goal in caring for the patient with ARDS is for the PaO2 to be greater
than or equal to 60 mm Hg with adequate lung ventilation to maintain a normal
pH of 7.35 to 7.45. PEEP is usually increased for ARDS patients, but a dramatic
reduction in BP indicates a complication of decreased cardiac output. A positive
occurrence is a marked improvement in PaO2 from perfusion better matching
ventilation when the anterior air-filled, nonatelectatic alveoli become dependent
in the prone position.




A patient is in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) from sepsis. Which
measure would be implemented to maintain cardiac output?
A. Administer IV crystalloid fluids.
B. Place the patient on a strict fluid restriction.
C. Position the patient in Trendelenburg position.
D. Perform chest physiotherapy and assist with staged coughing.




A+ TEST BANK 4

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