EFMB EXAM QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
GUARANTEED PASS BRAND NEW 2025
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine
Anterior-Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay
usually with a(n) __________. - ANSWER>>portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by Cervical
Spine Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE
is unavailable. - ANSWER >>FALSE. Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation
(CSRE) has been largely replaced by Computed Tomography (CT) and should only be
performed when a CT is unavailable.
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography (CT)
Scanner? - ANSWER>>Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? -
ANSWER >>Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields
available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - ANSWER >>lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is
__________ feet. - ANSWER >>Six (6)
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for __________. -
ANSWER >>Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and and specificity of
,__________. - ANSWER>>98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury. - ANSWER >>FALSE. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury.
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the
emergency department on a hand held portable US device. - ANSWER >>TRUE
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most
commonly using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array __________ probe. -
ANSWER >>Ultra Sound (US)
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
__________ in certain areas of the body. - ANSWER >>Free Intraperitoneal Fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANSWER >>Liver &
Kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANSWER >>Spleen
& Kidney
An 18g __________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
ANSWER >>antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography (CT) contrast injection is to provide concurrent
solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary
arterial. - ANSWER >>TRUE
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography (CT) scan on a Military Working Dog,
utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses
of and rates of contrast administration. - ANSWER >>FALSE. Utilize a scanning
protocol based on the pediatric settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration.
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient
,as a backup. - ANSWER >>TRUE
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is widely used in theater, as its utility in the
acute management of combat trauma was extensively established during
Operation Enduring Freedom. - ANSWER>>FALSE. While Magnetic Resonance
Imaging (MRI) has been deployed to theater in the past, its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma has not been established.
All trauma patients arriving at a Role __________ hospital will receive proper and
expeditious radiologic screening of injuries. - ANSWER >>3
Section 2: Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma & Hearing Loss - ANSWER >>-
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. -
ANSWER >>FALSE. Service Members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise
or noise greater than 140 dB are at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent
hearing loss. Patients exposed to blasts are at risk for both aural and acoustic trauma.
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - ANSWER >>1. Hearing Loss
2. Tinnitus (Ringing in the Ear)
3. Aural Fullness
4. Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise)
5. Difficulty Localizing Sounds
6. Difficulty Hearing in a Noisy Background
7. Vertigo
"H-TARDD-V"
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
__________ or __________. - ANSWER>>temporary (temporary threshold shift,
TTS) or permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the __________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast
injury (PBI). - ANSWER >>tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: the smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - ANSWER >>TRUE
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so
within the first __________ after injury. - ANSWER >>8 weeks
, Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the __________ grading scale. -
ANSWER >>House-Brackmann
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - ANSWER>>FALSE. Early
administration of steroids should be provided if not contraindicated, and referral for
management by an otolaryngologist is indicated.
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - ANSWER >>1. Otic Capsule
Violating Temporal Bone Fractures
2. Secondary Infections of the Inner Ear or Vestibular Nerves
3. Trauma Induced Endolymphatic Hydrops
4. Activation of Subclinical Super Semicircular Canal Dehiscence
"OSTA"
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should... - ANSWER>>...be educated
and directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable.
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the External Auditory Canal
(EAC) or in the middle ear (as seen through a TM perforation)? - ANSWER >>Treat
the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4)
drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a
day for seven (7) days. Do not irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain and vertigo.
Hearing loss that persists __________ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a
hearing test or audiogram. - ANSWER >>72 hours
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. -
ANSWER >>TRUE
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure
should... - ANSWER>>...have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated
by hearing testing as soon as possible
GUARANTEED PASS BRAND NEW 2025
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine
Anterior-Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay
usually with a(n) __________. - ANSWER>>portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by Cervical
Spine Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE
is unavailable. - ANSWER >>FALSE. Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation
(CSRE) has been largely replaced by Computed Tomography (CT) and should only be
performed when a CT is unavailable.
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography (CT)
Scanner? - ANSWER>>Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? -
ANSWER >>Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields
available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - ANSWER >>lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is
__________ feet. - ANSWER >>Six (6)
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for __________. -
ANSWER >>Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and and specificity of
,__________. - ANSWER>>98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury. - ANSWER >>FALSE. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury.
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the
emergency department on a hand held portable US device. - ANSWER >>TRUE
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most
commonly using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array __________ probe. -
ANSWER >>Ultra Sound (US)
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
__________ in certain areas of the body. - ANSWER >>Free Intraperitoneal Fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANSWER >>Liver &
Kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANSWER >>Spleen
& Kidney
An 18g __________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
ANSWER >>antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography (CT) contrast injection is to provide concurrent
solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary
arterial. - ANSWER >>TRUE
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography (CT) scan on a Military Working Dog,
utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses
of and rates of contrast administration. - ANSWER >>FALSE. Utilize a scanning
protocol based on the pediatric settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration.
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient
,as a backup. - ANSWER >>TRUE
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is widely used in theater, as its utility in the
acute management of combat trauma was extensively established during
Operation Enduring Freedom. - ANSWER>>FALSE. While Magnetic Resonance
Imaging (MRI) has been deployed to theater in the past, its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma has not been established.
All trauma patients arriving at a Role __________ hospital will receive proper and
expeditious radiologic screening of injuries. - ANSWER >>3
Section 2: Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma & Hearing Loss - ANSWER >>-
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. -
ANSWER >>FALSE. Service Members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise
or noise greater than 140 dB are at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent
hearing loss. Patients exposed to blasts are at risk for both aural and acoustic trauma.
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - ANSWER >>1. Hearing Loss
2. Tinnitus (Ringing in the Ear)
3. Aural Fullness
4. Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise)
5. Difficulty Localizing Sounds
6. Difficulty Hearing in a Noisy Background
7. Vertigo
"H-TARDD-V"
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
__________ or __________. - ANSWER>>temporary (temporary threshold shift,
TTS) or permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the __________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast
injury (PBI). - ANSWER >>tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: the smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - ANSWER >>TRUE
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so
within the first __________ after injury. - ANSWER >>8 weeks
, Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the __________ grading scale. -
ANSWER >>House-Brackmann
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - ANSWER>>FALSE. Early
administration of steroids should be provided if not contraindicated, and referral for
management by an otolaryngologist is indicated.
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - ANSWER >>1. Otic Capsule
Violating Temporal Bone Fractures
2. Secondary Infections of the Inner Ear or Vestibular Nerves
3. Trauma Induced Endolymphatic Hydrops
4. Activation of Subclinical Super Semicircular Canal Dehiscence
"OSTA"
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should... - ANSWER>>...be educated
and directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable.
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the External Auditory Canal
(EAC) or in the middle ear (as seen through a TM perforation)? - ANSWER >>Treat
the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4)
drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a
day for seven (7) days. Do not irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain and vertigo.
Hearing loss that persists __________ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a
hearing test or audiogram. - ANSWER >>72 hours
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. -
ANSWER >>TRUE
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure
should... - ANSWER>>...have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated
by hearing testing as soon as possible
