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Advanced Pathophysiology Week 11: Endocrine, Reproductive & Metabolic Disorders – 110 High-Yield MCQs with Rationales

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Master advanced pathophysiology for Week 11 with this comprehensive bank of 110 high-yield multiple-choice questions covering endocrine, reproductive, and metabolic disorders. Includes detailed rationales for every answer. Topics: hypothalamic-pituitary axis disorders (panhypopituitarism, prolactinoma, acromegaly, diabetes insipidus, SIADH), thyroid & parathyroid (Hashimoto’s, Graves’, thyroid storm, myxedema coma, hyperparathyroidism), adrenal disorders (Addison’s, Cushing’s, Conn’s, pheochromocytoma, CAH), pancreatic & diabetes mellitus (type 1/2 pathophysiology, DKA, HHS, metformin, SGLT2 inhibitors, complications), reproductive pathophysiology (PCOS, endometriosis, fibroids, menopause, hypogonadism, Klinefelter, varicocele, ED, BPH, prostate cancer), metabolic bone disorders (osteoporosis, osteomalacia, Paget’s, renal osteodystrophy), and polyglandular syndromes (MEN 1/2, APS-1/2). Graded A+ guarantee.

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ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY WEEK 11:
ENDOCRINE, REPRODUCTIVE & METABOLIC
DISORDERS – 110 HIGH-YIELD MCQS WITH
RATIONALES | GRADED A+ | FIRST-TIME PASS



# Section 1: Hypothalamic-Pituitary Axis Disorders (1–15)


**1.** A patient presents with central hypogonadism, low TSH, low
ACTH, and a pituitary mass on MRI. Which condition is most likely?
A) Primary adrenal insufficiency
B) Panhypopituitarism
C) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
D) Hyperprolactinemia alone


**Answer:** B
**Rationale:** Panhypopituitarism involves deficiency of multiple
anterior pituitary hormones due to a mass, infarction (Sheehan’s), or
surgery.


**2.** Prolactinoma, the most common pituitary adenoma, classically
causes:
A) Galactorrhea, hypogonadism, and bitemporal hemianopia if large

,2|Page


B) Hyperthyroidism and weight loss
C) Hyperpigmentation and hypotension
D) Acromegaly and coarse facies


**Answer:** A
**Rationale:** Prolactin excess inhibits GnRH → hypogonadism;
macroadenomas compress optic chiasm.


**3.** A 45-year-old woman with recent postpartum hemorrhage now
cannot lactate, has fatigue, loss of pubic hair, and hypotension. Most
likely diagnosis:
A) Sheehan syndrome
B) Cushing’s disease
C) Primary hyperparathyroidism
D) Pheochromocytoma


**Answer:** A
**Rationale:** Ischemic necrosis of pituitary after severe obstetric
bleeding → anterior pituitary failure.


**4.** Acromegaly is caused by:
A) Cortisol excess
B) Growth hormone excess after epiphyseal closure

,3|Page


C) ADH deficiency
D) Prolactin deficiency


**Answer:** B
**Rationale:** GH-secreting pituitary adenoma in adulthood → acral
enlargement, organomegaly, diabetes.


**5.** Diabetes insipidus (central) is characterized by:
A) Hyperglycemia, polyuria, ketonuria
B) Low ADH, dilute urine, hypernatremia, polydipsia
C) High ADH, concentrated urine, hyponatremia
D) Polyphagia, weight loss, acanthosis nigricans


**Answer:** B
**Rationale:** Central DI: lack of ADH → inability to concentrate
urine → large volume dilute urine → thirst, hypernatremia.


**6.** Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)
typically presents with:
A) Hypernatremia, concentrated urine, hypotension
B) Hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, high urine osmolality,
euvolemia
C) Hypokalemia, alkalosis, hypertension

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D) Hypercalcemia, polyuria, nephrolithiasis


**Answer:** B
**Rationale:** SIADH: excess ADH → water retention → dilutional
hyponatremia; urine inappropriately concentrated.


**7.** A patient with a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH would develop:
A) Cushing’s disease (pituitary source)
B) Addison’s disease
C) Conn’s syndrome
D) Hyperprolactinemia


**Answer:** A
**Rationale:** Cushing’s disease = ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma
→ bilateral adrenal hyperplasia → cortisol excess.


**8.** Which lab finding distinguishes central DI from nephrogenic DI?
A) Serum glucose level
B) Response to desmopressin (DDAVP)
C) Urine calcium
D) Plasma renin activity


**Answer:** B

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