Advanced Trauma Life Support
10th Edition
Post-Tests 1–4 Study Guide
Complete Question Bank with Answers and Rationales
Academic Year 2026/2027
160 Questions | 4 Post-Tests | 80% Passing Score
Based on the American College of Surgeons
Committee on Trauma Guidelines
, Table of Contents
Post-Test 1 Questions 1–40
Primary Survey, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, FAST Exam, Secondary Survey
Post-Test 2 Questions 41–80
Shock, Thoracic Trauma, Abdominal Trauma, Pelvic Trauma, Damage Control
Post-Test 3 Questions 81–120
Head & Spinal Trauma, Extremity Trauma, Burns, Pediatric Trauma
Post-Test 4 Questions 121–160
Special Situations, Geriatric Trauma, Pregnancy, Transfer & Transport
, POST-TEST 1
Primary Survey, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, FAST Exam, Secondary Survey
Questions 1–40
1. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the primary survey of a trauma patient
according to ATLS protocols?
A) Assess disability using the Glasgow Coma Scale
B) Ensure cervical spine immobilization and establish airway patency
C) Obtain a full set of vital signs and attach a cardiac monitor
D) Perform a head-to-toe secondary survey
Rationale: The primary survey follows the ABCDE sequence: Airway with cervical spine
protection, Breathing, Circulation, Disability (neurologic status), and Exposure/environmental
control. Airway assessment and management always come first, with simultaneous cervical spine
protection in any trauma patient with a potential mechanism of injury. ATLS emphasizes that life-
threatening conditions must be identified and treated in this prioritized order before moving to the
next step.
2. A 34-year-old male is brought to the ED after a motor vehicle collision. He is
unconscious with gurgling respirations and blood in his oropharynx. What is the most
appropriate initial airway intervention?
A) Perform a surgical cricothyrotomy immediately
B) Perform jaw thrust with suctioning and consider rapid sequence intubation
C) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and administer oxygen
D) Place the patient in the recovery position to clear the airway
Rationale: In a trauma patient with an altered level of consciousness, blood in the oropharynx, and
gurgling respirations, the airway must be secured. The jaw thrust maneuver (without head tilt) is
the initial technique to open the airway while maintaining cervical spine immobilization.
Suctioning clears blood and secretions. Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) with in-line stabilization is
the definitive approach if the patient cannot protect the airway. A surgical airway
(cricothyrotomy) is reserved for cases where endotracheal intubation or bag-mask ventilation is
impossible.
3. Which of the following is an absolute indication for a surgical cricothyrotomy in a
trauma patient?
A) Anticoagulant use with suspected cervical spine injury
B) Complete upper airway obstruction that cannot be relieved by basic maneuvers or
intubation
C) Bilateral mandible fractures with nasal bleeding
D) Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 with suspected traumatic brain injury
Rationale: The absolute indication for surgical cricothyrotomy is the inability to secure an airway
by any other means—the "cannot intubate, cannot ventilate" scenario. This includes massive facial
trauma with airway obstruction, complete tracheal transection, or severe airway edema.
Anticoagulation, facial fractures, and low GCS are relative factors that may complicate intubation
but are not by themselves absolute indications for a surgical airway. ATLS teaches that surgical
cricothyrotomy is a last-resort, life-saving procedure when all other methods have failed.
4. During the primary survey of a blunt trauma patient, you note tracheal deviation and
absent breath sounds on the left side. The patient is hypotensive and has distended neck
veins. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?
A) Obtain a chest radiograph to confirm the diagnosis
B) Perform needle decompression of the left chest followed by tube thoracostomy
C) Administer 2 liters of isotonic crystalloid and reassess
, D) Perform an emergency thoracotomy in the emergency department
Rationale: The clinical presentation of tracheal deviation, absent breath sounds, hypotension, and
distended neck veins is classic for tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate decompression. Needle decompression (typically in the second intercostal space at the
midclavicular line or the fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line per ATLS 10th Edition)
should be performed immediately, followed by definitive treatment with a tube thoracostomy. This
is a clinical diagnosis that does not require radiographic confirmation before intervention.
5. A trauma patient has suspected cervical spine injury. Which technique is recommended
for airway opening in this situation?
A) Head tilt-chin lift maneuver
B) Modified jaw thrust without head extension
C) Oropharyngeal airway insertion only
D) Flexion of the neck with jaw thrust
Rationale: In patients with suspected cervical spine injury, the jaw thrust maneuver is the
recommended technique for opening the airway because it moves the mandible forward without
extending the neck. Head tilt-chin lift is contraindicated because it may worsen cervical spine
injury. The jaw thrust (or jaw thrust with spine stabilization) is the only basic airway maneuver
that maintains neutral cervical spine alignment while potentially relieving tongue-based airway
obstruction.
6. Which of the following patients would MOST likely benefit from rapid sequence
intubation (RSI) during the primary survey?
A) A conscious patient with a minor laceration to the forearm
B) A patient with a GCS of 8, labored breathing, and combativeness
C) A patient with isolated rib fractures who is alert and oriented
D) A patient with a stable pelvic fracture and normal vital signs
Rationale: Rapid sequence intubation is indicated in trauma patients who cannot protect their
airway or who have impending respiratory failure. A GCS of 8 or less is a widely accepted
indication for intubation, as the patient is unlikely to be able to protect the airway. Combativeness,
labored breathing, and signs of respiratory distress are additional indications. Awake, cooperative
patients with isolated injuries and normal mentation do not require RSI during the primary
survey.
7. A 45-year-old male sustains a penetrating neck injury. He has stridor, subcutaneous
emphysema, and an expanding hematoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate
management?
A) Immediate oral intubation in the emergency department
B) Awake fiberoptic intubation with preparation for surgical airway
C) Application of a cervical collar and observation for 6 hours
D) CT angiography of the neck before any airway intervention
Rationale: Penetrating neck injuries with signs of airway compromise (stridor), subcutaneous
emphysema, and an expanding hematoma suggest airway or vascular injury. The airway should
be secured before it becomes impossible. Awake fiberoptic intubation is preferred when there is
time, as it allows the patient to maintain spontaneous breathing while the airway is visualized and
secured. However, the team must be prepared for immediate surgical cricothyrotomy if the airway
is lost. Blind oral or nasotracheal intubation may worsen the injury. Delaying airway management
for imaging is inappropriate when the airway is threatened.
8. In ATLS, which of the following best describes the purpose of the primary survey?
A) To identify all injuries, including non-life-threatening ones
B) To identify and immediately treat life-threatening conditions in a prioritized
sequence
C) To obtain a complete medical history from the patient or family