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ACLS FINAL EXAM AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

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ACLS FINAL EXAM AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+ A complete ACLS practice exam with 100 questions and detailed rationales, covering essential algorithms, emergency response, and advanced life support concepts for certification preparation.

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ACLS FINAL EXAM AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
A 58-year-old man collapses in the hospital hallway. He is unresponsive, not
breathing, and has no pulse. The monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. What is the
first action?
A. Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV
B. Deliver unsynchronized shock
C. Begin chest compressions
D. Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV
Correct Answer: B. Deliver unsynchronized shock
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a shockable rhythm. Immediate
defibrillation is the priority, followed by CPR. Early shock improves survival.


Question 2
During resuscitation of a patient in pulseless ventricular tachycardia, after the
second shock, what medication should be administered?
A. Atropine 1 mg IV
B. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
C. Adenosine 6 mg IV
D. Lidocaine 0.5 mg/kg IV
Correct Answer: B. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Rationale: Epinephrine is given every 3–5 minutes during cardiac arrest after the
second shock in shockable rhythms to improve coronary perfusion.

,Question 3
A patient presents with symptomatic bradycardia (HR 32 bpm), hypotension, and
dizziness. What is the first-line treatment?
A. Dopamine infusion
B. Epinephrine infusion
C. Atropine 1 mg IV
D. Transcutaneous pacing
Correct Answer: C. Atropine 1 mg IV
Rationale: Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia unless
contraindicated. It increases heart rate by blocking vagal tone.


Question 4
A patient is in stable narrow-complex tachycardia at 160 bpm. Vagal maneuvers
fail. What is the next step?
A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
C. Amiodarone 150 mg IV
D. Defibrillation
Correct Answer: B. Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
Rationale: Adenosine is the first-line medication for stable narrow-complex SVT
after vagal maneuvers fail.


Question 5
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
A. Asystole
B. Pulseless electrical activity
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus bradycardia

,Correct Answer: C. Ventricular fibrillation
Rationale: VF is a shockable rhythm. Asystole and PEA are non-shockable and
require CPR and medications.


Question 6
A patient in cardiac arrest has PEA on the monitor. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Immediate defibrillation
B. Administer atropine
C. High-quality CPR and epinephrine
D. Synchronized cardioversion
Correct Answer: C. High-quality CPR and epinephrine
Rationale: PEA is a non-shockable rhythm. Management focuses on CPR,
epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes (Hs & Ts).


Question 7
Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypoxia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Fever
Correct Answer: B. Hypoxia
Rationale: Hypoxia is one of the Hs (reversible causes) in ACLS that must be
corrected during resuscitation.

, Question 8
A patient with acute coronary syndrome has persistent chest pain. What medication
should be given first?
A. Morphine
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Aspirin
D. Heparin
Correct Answer: C. Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation and mortality in ACS and should
be given immediately unless contraindicated.


Question 9
A patient becomes pulseless, and the rhythm is asystole. What should you do?
A. Defibrillate immediately
B. Administer amiodarone
C. Begin CPR and give epinephrine
D. Perform synchronized cardioversion
Correct Answer: C. Begin CPR and give epinephrine
Rationale: Asystole is non-shockable. Management involves CPR and
epinephrine, not defibrillation.


Question 10
What is the recommended compression rate during CPR?
A. 60–80/min
B. 80–100/min
C. 100–120/min
D. 120–140/min
Correct Answer: C. 100–120/min
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires a rate of 100–120 compressions per minute.

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