HESI A2 Anatomy and Physiology
2026/2027 Actual Exam Complete
Questions and Answers with Detailed
Rationales - Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Basic Chemistry, Cells & Tissues – 10 questions
Q1: Which of the following best describes the primary function of enzymes in a chemical
reaction?
A. To increase the temperature of the reaction to speed it up.
B. To lower the activation energy required for the reaction to proceed.
C. To become a permanent part of the final product.
D. To alter the pH of the environment to favor the reaction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is that enzymes lower activation energy because they act
as biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by reducing the amount of
energy needed to start them, without being consumed in the process.
Q2: A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. What will happen to the cell?
A. The cell will swell and burst.
B. The cell will remain the same size.
C. The cell will crenate (shrink).
D. The cell will undergo mitosis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because in a hypertonic solution, there is a higher
solute concentration outside the cell than inside, causing water to move out of the cell
by osmosis, resulting in the cell shrinking.
Q3: During which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids align at the metaphase
plate?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: This aligns with the stages of mitosis because metaphase is defined by the
chromosomes lining up single-file along the center of the cell (the metaphase plate)
before separating.
Q4: Which type of connective tissue is found in the tendons and ligaments, providing
strength and the ability to withstand tension?
A. Loose connective tissue
B. Dense irregular connective tissue
C. Dense regular connective tissue
D. Areolar connective tissue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is dense regular connective tissue because it has collagen
fibers arranged in parallel bundles, which is the ideal structure for tendons and
ligaments to withstand pulling forces in one direction.
Q5: Which cellular organelle is responsible for producing the majority of the cell's ATP
through cellular respiration?
A. Ribosome
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because the mitochondria are known as the
"powerhouse" of the cell, generating ATP through the processes of the Krebs cycle and
electron transport chain.
Q6: Sodium chloride (NaCl) is an example of which type of chemical bond?
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Polar covalent bond
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with chemical bonding because sodium is a metal that transfers
an electron to chlorine (a non-metal), resulting in positively and negatively charged ions
that attract each other to form a stable crystal lattice.
Q7: The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration requires energy. What is this process called?
A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Active transport
, D. Facilitated diffusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is active transport because moving substances against their
concentration gradient (uphill) requires the cell to expend energy, usually in the form of
ATP.
Q8: Which type of epithelial tissue is best suited for protection and lining body cavities
exposed to friction, such as the skin or mouth?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Stratified columnar epithelium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because stratified squamous epithelium consists of
multiple layers of flattened cells, making it thick and durable enough to protect
underlying tissues from abrasion and wear.
Q9: Which of the following correctly compares meiosis to mitosis?
A. Meiosis produces two diploid cells; mitosis produces four haploid cells.
B. Meiosis produces four genetically unique haploid cells; mitosis produces two
genetically identical diploid cells.
C. Meiosis produces two genetically identical diploid cells; mitosis produces four haploid
cells.
D. Meiosis is for growth and repair; mitosis is for sexual reproduction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with cell division because meiosis reduces the chromosome
number by half (haploid) to produce gametes for reproduction, while mitosis produces
identical diploid cells for growth and tissue repair.
Q10: A solution has a pH of 3. Is this solution acidic, basic, or neutral?
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. It cannot be determined without a pH scale.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because the pH scale runs from 0 to 14, where values
below 7 are acidic, 7 is neutral, and values above 7 are basic (alkaline). A pH of 3 is
strongly acidic.
Integumentary, Skeletal & Muscular Systems – 10 questions
2026/2027 Actual Exam Complete
Questions and Answers with Detailed
Rationales - Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Basic Chemistry, Cells & Tissues – 10 questions
Q1: Which of the following best describes the primary function of enzymes in a chemical
reaction?
A. To increase the temperature of the reaction to speed it up.
B. To lower the activation energy required for the reaction to proceed.
C. To become a permanent part of the final product.
D. To alter the pH of the environment to favor the reaction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is that enzymes lower activation energy because they act
as biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by reducing the amount of
energy needed to start them, without being consumed in the process.
Q2: A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. What will happen to the cell?
A. The cell will swell and burst.
B. The cell will remain the same size.
C. The cell will crenate (shrink).
D. The cell will undergo mitosis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because in a hypertonic solution, there is a higher
solute concentration outside the cell than inside, causing water to move out of the cell
by osmosis, resulting in the cell shrinking.
Q3: During which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids align at the metaphase
plate?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: This aligns with the stages of mitosis because metaphase is defined by the
chromosomes lining up single-file along the center of the cell (the metaphase plate)
before separating.
Q4: Which type of connective tissue is found in the tendons and ligaments, providing
strength and the ability to withstand tension?
A. Loose connective tissue
B. Dense irregular connective tissue
C. Dense regular connective tissue
D. Areolar connective tissue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is dense regular connective tissue because it has collagen
fibers arranged in parallel bundles, which is the ideal structure for tendons and
ligaments to withstand pulling forces in one direction.
Q5: Which cellular organelle is responsible for producing the majority of the cell's ATP
through cellular respiration?
A. Ribosome
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because the mitochondria are known as the
"powerhouse" of the cell, generating ATP through the processes of the Krebs cycle and
electron transport chain.
Q6: Sodium chloride (NaCl) is an example of which type of chemical bond?
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Polar covalent bond
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with chemical bonding because sodium is a metal that transfers
an electron to chlorine (a non-metal), resulting in positively and negatively charged ions
that attract each other to form a stable crystal lattice.
Q7: The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration requires energy. What is this process called?
A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Active transport
, D. Facilitated diffusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is active transport because moving substances against their
concentration gradient (uphill) requires the cell to expend energy, usually in the form of
ATP.
Q8: Which type of epithelial tissue is best suited for protection and lining body cavities
exposed to friction, such as the skin or mouth?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Stratified columnar epithelium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because stratified squamous epithelium consists of
multiple layers of flattened cells, making it thick and durable enough to protect
underlying tissues from abrasion and wear.
Q9: Which of the following correctly compares meiosis to mitosis?
A. Meiosis produces two diploid cells; mitosis produces four haploid cells.
B. Meiosis produces four genetically unique haploid cells; mitosis produces two
genetically identical diploid cells.
C. Meiosis produces two genetically identical diploid cells; mitosis produces four haploid
cells.
D. Meiosis is for growth and repair; mitosis is for sexual reproduction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with cell division because meiosis reduces the chromosome
number by half (haploid) to produce gametes for reproduction, while mitosis produces
identical diploid cells for growth and tissue repair.
Q10: A solution has a pH of 3. Is this solution acidic, basic, or neutral?
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. It cannot be determined without a pH scale.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because the pH scale runs from 0 to 14, where values
below 7 are acidic, 7 is neutral, and values above 7 are basic (alkaline). A pH of 3 is
strongly acidic.
Integumentary, Skeletal & Muscular Systems – 10 questions
