ATI Pharmacology PN Proctored Exam 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart
failure. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the
provider before administration?
A. Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
B. Apical pulse 54 beats per minute
C. Respiratory rate 18 per minute
D. Temperature 98.6°F (37°C)
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that can cause bradycardia. The
apical pulse should be assessed for a full minute prior to administration.
If the pulse is below 60 beats per minute in an adult, the dose should
be withheld and the provider notified, as administering the drug could
further decrease the heart rate and lead to serious dysrhythmias.
2. A client is prescribed furosemide for hypertension. Which laboratory
value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum glucose
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D. Serum albumin
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of
potassium, water, and sodium. Hypokalemia is a common and
potentially serious adverse effect that predisposes the client to cardiac
dysrhythmias, especially in those taking digoxin. Potassium levels must
be closely monitored.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement
by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B. "I will take ibuprofen for headaches."
C. "I will increase my intake of spinach and broccoli."
D. "I will stop the medication if I notice bruising."
Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors,
increasing the risk of bleeding. Using an electric razor reduces the risk
of cuts and bleeding, indicating the client understands necessary safety
precautions. Ibuprofen is contraindicated due to increased bleeding
risk. Consistent vitamin K intake is required, not an increase. The
medication should not be stopped abruptly.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. What
information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
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B. "You may experience weight gain while taking this medication."
C. "Diarrhea is a common side effect when starting this drug."
D. "Stop taking the medication 2 days before any radiological procedure
using contrast dye."
Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but life-
threatening complication. The risk increases with intravenous iodinated
contrast media. The drug should be withheld on the day of the
procedure and for at least 48 hours after, resuming only once renal
function is confirmed to be normal. Answer C is also true but D is the
most critical safety point.
5. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving intravenous heparin. Which
laboratory result is used to titrate the heparin infusion?
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count
Answer: C
Rationale: Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, and the aPTT
is the laboratory test used to monitor therapeutic levels of
unfractionated heparin. The typical therapeutic goal is an aPTT 1.5 to
2.5 times the control value. PT and INR are used to monitor warfarin
therapy.
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6. A client is receiving gentamicin for a severe infection. The nurse
should monitor for which adverse effect?
A. Tinnitus and hearing loss
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C. Tendon rupture
D. Hepatotoxicity
Answer: A
Rationale: Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known for its
ototoxic and nephrotoxic effects. Ototoxicity can manifest as tinnitus,
high-frequency hearing loss, and vertigo, and it may be irreversible.
Peak and trough serum levels are monitored to minimize the risk of
toxicity.
7. A nurse administers naloxone to a client experiencing respiratory
depression from an opioid overdose. What is the primary concern
following administration?
A. The client may develop hypertension.
B. The duration of action of naloxone is shorter than that of the opioid.
C. The client will experience extreme sedation.
D. Naloxone causes irreversible receptor blockade.
Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is a short-acting opioid antagonist. Its duration of
action is 1 to 2 hours, which is shorter than many opioids. Respiratory
depression may return after naloxone wears off. The client requires