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Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry 12th Edition 2026-2027
BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100%
CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. According to Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th Edition,
which of the following best defines a mental disorder?
A. Any behavior that deviates significantly from social or cultural norms.
B. A syndrome characterized by clinically significant disturbance in
cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in
psychological, biological, or developmental processes.
C. A biological abnormality in brain structure that is identifiable via
neuroimaging.
D. Subjective psychological distress reported by an individual,
irrespective of the impact on daily functioning.
Answer: B. The DSM-5, which is integrated into the 12th edition,
defines a mental disorder as a syndrome reflecting dysfunction in
psychological, biological, or developmental processes, with clinically
significant disturbance. This excludes expectable responses to stressors
and socially deviant behavior unless it results from dysfunction in the
individual.
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2. A patient presents with a history of elevated mood lasting for five
consecutive days, decreased need for sleep, and increased goal-
directed activity. The symptoms are observable by others but not
severe enough to cause marked impairment in social functioning.
According to DSM-5 criteria in Synopsis, what is the most appropriate
diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I disorder, current episode manic.
B. Bipolar II disorder, current episode hypomanic.
C. Cyclothymic disorder.
D. Substance-induced mood disorder.
Answer: B. The 12th edition specifies that a hypomanic episode
requires a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated,
expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least four consecutive days. The
symptoms are present most of the day, nearly every day, and represent
a noticeable change from baseline but are not severe enough to cause
marked impairment, which distinguishes it from a manic episode seen
in Bipolar I disorder.
3. A 24-year-old man presents with disorganized speech, flat affect, and
social withdrawal for the past seven months. He also reports beliefs
that strangers on the bus are inserting thoughts into his head. He has
no catatonic behavior. What is the critical diagnostic threshold
differentiating this from Schizophreniform Disorder?
A. The presence of bizarre delusions.
B. The duration of the disturbance.
C. The severity of negative symptoms.
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D. The degree of occupational dysfunction.
Answer: B. Synopsis notes that in Schizophreniform Disorder, the
disturbance lasts between one and six months. In Schizophrenia,
continuous signs of the disturbance must persist for at least six months.
The seven-month duration here crosses that threshold.
4. A patient with schizophrenia has been stable on haloperidol for a
year but now presents with severe muscle rigidity, fever (102.9°F),
tachycardia, and labile blood pressure. What is the immediate clinical
priority?
A. Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic.
B. Administering an antipyretic and continuing observation.
C. Discontinuing the antipsychotic and providing supportive medical
care.
D. Increasing the haloperidol dose to target the exacerbation of
psychosis.
Answer: C. This presentation is consistent with neuroleptic malignant
syndrome (NMS), a life-threatening emergency. According to Synopsis,
the first step in management is immediate discontinuation of the
offending agent and initiation of supportive measures, including fluid
resuscitation and cooling.
5. Which neurotransmitter hypothesis is most consistently associated
with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and
delusions?
A. Increased dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway.
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B. Decreased dopamine activity in the mesocortical pathway.
C. Increased serotonin activity in the raphe nuclei.
D. Decreased glutamate activity at NMDA receptors.
Answer: A. The text discusses the dopamine hypothesis, indicating that
hyperactivity of dopamine transmission in the mesolimbic pathway is
linked to positive symptoms. This is supported by the efficacy of D2
receptor antagonists in treating these symptoms.
6. A patient on clozapine therapy develops a sore throat and fever. A
CBC reveals an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 400 cells/µL. Which
intervention does Synopsis recommend?
A. Reduce clozapine by 50% and add a granulocyte colony-stimulating
factor.
B. Discontinue clozapine immediately and do not rechallenge.
C. Temporarily hold clozapine and restart at a lower dose once ANC
normalizes.
D. Continue clozapine alongside prophylactic antibiotics.
Answer: B. An ANC of less than 500 cells/µL defines severe neutropenia.
Per the risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (REMS) outlined in the
12th edition, clozapine must be discontinued immediately, and the
patient should never be rechallenged due to the high mortality risk
associated with future agranulocytosis.
7. A 35-year-old woman with borderline personality disorder frequently
idealizes her therapist and then becomes intensely angry when the
Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry 12th Edition 2026-2027
BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100%
CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. According to Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 12th Edition,
which of the following best defines a mental disorder?
A. Any behavior that deviates significantly from social or cultural norms.
B. A syndrome characterized by clinically significant disturbance in
cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in
psychological, biological, or developmental processes.
C. A biological abnormality in brain structure that is identifiable via
neuroimaging.
D. Subjective psychological distress reported by an individual,
irrespective of the impact on daily functioning.
Answer: B. The DSM-5, which is integrated into the 12th edition,
defines a mental disorder as a syndrome reflecting dysfunction in
psychological, biological, or developmental processes, with clinically
significant disturbance. This excludes expectable responses to stressors
and socially deviant behavior unless it results from dysfunction in the
individual.
,2|Page
2. A patient presents with a history of elevated mood lasting for five
consecutive days, decreased need for sleep, and increased goal-
directed activity. The symptoms are observable by others but not
severe enough to cause marked impairment in social functioning.
According to DSM-5 criteria in Synopsis, what is the most appropriate
diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I disorder, current episode manic.
B. Bipolar II disorder, current episode hypomanic.
C. Cyclothymic disorder.
D. Substance-induced mood disorder.
Answer: B. The 12th edition specifies that a hypomanic episode
requires a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated,
expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least four consecutive days. The
symptoms are present most of the day, nearly every day, and represent
a noticeable change from baseline but are not severe enough to cause
marked impairment, which distinguishes it from a manic episode seen
in Bipolar I disorder.
3. A 24-year-old man presents with disorganized speech, flat affect, and
social withdrawal for the past seven months. He also reports beliefs
that strangers on the bus are inserting thoughts into his head. He has
no catatonic behavior. What is the critical diagnostic threshold
differentiating this from Schizophreniform Disorder?
A. The presence of bizarre delusions.
B. The duration of the disturbance.
C. The severity of negative symptoms.
,3|Page
D. The degree of occupational dysfunction.
Answer: B. Synopsis notes that in Schizophreniform Disorder, the
disturbance lasts between one and six months. In Schizophrenia,
continuous signs of the disturbance must persist for at least six months.
The seven-month duration here crosses that threshold.
4. A patient with schizophrenia has been stable on haloperidol for a
year but now presents with severe muscle rigidity, fever (102.9°F),
tachycardia, and labile blood pressure. What is the immediate clinical
priority?
A. Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic.
B. Administering an antipyretic and continuing observation.
C. Discontinuing the antipsychotic and providing supportive medical
care.
D. Increasing the haloperidol dose to target the exacerbation of
psychosis.
Answer: C. This presentation is consistent with neuroleptic malignant
syndrome (NMS), a life-threatening emergency. According to Synopsis,
the first step in management is immediate discontinuation of the
offending agent and initiation of supportive measures, including fluid
resuscitation and cooling.
5. Which neurotransmitter hypothesis is most consistently associated
with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and
delusions?
A. Increased dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway.
, 4|Page
B. Decreased dopamine activity in the mesocortical pathway.
C. Increased serotonin activity in the raphe nuclei.
D. Decreased glutamate activity at NMDA receptors.
Answer: A. The text discusses the dopamine hypothesis, indicating that
hyperactivity of dopamine transmission in the mesolimbic pathway is
linked to positive symptoms. This is supported by the efficacy of D2
receptor antagonists in treating these symptoms.
6. A patient on clozapine therapy develops a sore throat and fever. A
CBC reveals an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 400 cells/µL. Which
intervention does Synopsis recommend?
A. Reduce clozapine by 50% and add a granulocyte colony-stimulating
factor.
B. Discontinue clozapine immediately and do not rechallenge.
C. Temporarily hold clozapine and restart at a lower dose once ANC
normalizes.
D. Continue clozapine alongside prophylactic antibiotics.
Answer: B. An ANC of less than 500 cells/µL defines severe neutropenia.
Per the risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (REMS) outlined in the
12th edition, clozapine must be discontinued immediately, and the
patient should never be rechallenged due to the high mortality risk
associated with future agranulocytosis.
7. A 35-year-old woman with borderline personality disorder frequently
idealizes her therapist and then becomes intensely angry when the
