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Maternal Child Nursing Care 7th Edition 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A nurse is providing preconception counseling to a client. The client
currently takes isotretinoin for severe acne. Which of the following
statements by the nurse is the highest priority?
A. "You should switch to a topical acne medication during pregnancy."
B. "Isotretinoin is a known teratogen and must be discontinued at least
one month before conception."
C. "We will need to monitor your liver function more closely once you
are pregnant."
D. "You can continue this medication until you have a positive
pregnancy test."
Answer: B
Explanation: Isotretinoin is a U.S. Food and Drug Administration
pregnancy category X drug, indicating it is a potent teratogen with
extremely high risk for causing severe fetal anomalies. It must be
completely discontinued for a specified period, typically at least one
month, before attempting conception to ensure complete clearance
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from the body. Waiting for a positive pregnancy test is contraindicated
because significant organogenesis occurs before the first missed period.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about the presumed signs of
pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?
A. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler at 10 weeks.
B. Braxton Hicks contractions and Chadwick's sign.
C. Palpation of fetal movement by the examiner.
D. Ultrasound visualization of the gestational sac.
Answer: B
Explanation: Presumptive signs are those experienced and reported by
the patient, with the exception of examiner-observed signs like
Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina) and
Hegar's sign (softening of the lower uterine segment), which are
considered probable because they can have other causes. Braxton Hicks
contractions are also probable signs. Fetal heart tones, palpation of
fetal movement by a clinician, and ultrasound visualization are positive,
objective signs that definitively confirm pregnancy.
3. A client at 28 weeks' gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia.
The nurse anticipates an order for magnesium sulfate. What is the
primary purpose of administering magnesium sulfate in this scenario?
A. To lower the client's blood pressure to a normal range.
B. To promote fetal lung maturity in case of preterm birth.
C. To prevent seizure activity associated with severe preeclampsia.
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D. To increase uterine blood flow and renal perfusion.
Answer: C
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant
used as an anticonvulsant in severe preeclampsia and eclampsia to
prevent and control seizures. While it may cause a mild, transient
decrease in blood pressure, this is not its primary therapeutic action.
Antihypertensive agents like hydralazine or labetalol are used for
severe hypertension. Betamethasone is administered for fetal lung
maturity.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet.
B. Respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute with nasal flaring.
C. A Moro reflex that is symmetric but easily startled.
D. A single transverse palmar crease on the right hand.
Answer: B
Explanation: A respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute with nasal
flaring indicates significant respiratory distress in a newborn. Normal
respiratory rates range from 30 to 60 breaths per minute. Nasal flaring
is a compensatory mechanism to decrease airway resistance and
reflects increased work of breathing. Acrocyanosis is a normal finding in
the first 24 hours. A symetric Moro reflex is normal. A single transverse
palmar crease is a soft sign that can be associated with genetic
disorders like Down syndrome but is not a medical emergency requiring
immediate respiratory intervention.
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5. A postpartum client who delivered vaginally 12 hours ago reports
perineal pain rated 7 out of 10. Fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and
lochia is moderate rubra. Which nursing action is most appropriate
initially?
A. Administer the prescribed oral analgesic.
B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
C. Encourage the client to ambulate to the bathroom.
D. Perform a straight catheterization for urinary retention.
Answer: B
Explanation: In the first 24 hours postpartum, perineal pain is most
effectively managed with cold therapy. An ice pack causes
vasoconstriction, which reduces edema formation, inflammation, and
local nerve conduction, thereby providing analgesia. An oral analgesic is
also appropriate but cold therapy should be applied locally as a first-
line measure for edema-related pain. A firm fundus and moderate
lochia rule out a boggy fundus with excessive bleeding. There is no
indication of bladder distention.
6. A nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about hyperbilirubinemia.
Which statement by a parent indicates a correct understanding of the
teaching?
A. "Physiologic jaundice appearing in the first 24 hours is expected and
harmless."
B. "Putting the baby in indirect sunlight will break down the bilirubin
safely."
Maternal Child Nursing Care 7th Edition 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A nurse is providing preconception counseling to a client. The client
currently takes isotretinoin for severe acne. Which of the following
statements by the nurse is the highest priority?
A. "You should switch to a topical acne medication during pregnancy."
B. "Isotretinoin is a known teratogen and must be discontinued at least
one month before conception."
C. "We will need to monitor your liver function more closely once you
are pregnant."
D. "You can continue this medication until you have a positive
pregnancy test."
Answer: B
Explanation: Isotretinoin is a U.S. Food and Drug Administration
pregnancy category X drug, indicating it is a potent teratogen with
extremely high risk for causing severe fetal anomalies. It must be
completely discontinued for a specified period, typically at least one
month, before attempting conception to ensure complete clearance
,2|Page
from the body. Waiting for a positive pregnancy test is contraindicated
because significant organogenesis occurs before the first missed period.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about the presumed signs of
pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?
A. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler at 10 weeks.
B. Braxton Hicks contractions and Chadwick's sign.
C. Palpation of fetal movement by the examiner.
D. Ultrasound visualization of the gestational sac.
Answer: B
Explanation: Presumptive signs are those experienced and reported by
the patient, with the exception of examiner-observed signs like
Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina) and
Hegar's sign (softening of the lower uterine segment), which are
considered probable because they can have other causes. Braxton Hicks
contractions are also probable signs. Fetal heart tones, palpation of
fetal movement by a clinician, and ultrasound visualization are positive,
objective signs that definitively confirm pregnancy.
3. A client at 28 weeks' gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia.
The nurse anticipates an order for magnesium sulfate. What is the
primary purpose of administering magnesium sulfate in this scenario?
A. To lower the client's blood pressure to a normal range.
B. To promote fetal lung maturity in case of preterm birth.
C. To prevent seizure activity associated with severe preeclampsia.
,3|Page
D. To increase uterine blood flow and renal perfusion.
Answer: C
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant
used as an anticonvulsant in severe preeclampsia and eclampsia to
prevent and control seizures. While it may cause a mild, transient
decrease in blood pressure, this is not its primary therapeutic action.
Antihypertensive agents like hydralazine or labetalol are used for
severe hypertension. Betamethasone is administered for fetal lung
maturity.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet.
B. Respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute with nasal flaring.
C. A Moro reflex that is symmetric but easily startled.
D. A single transverse palmar crease on the right hand.
Answer: B
Explanation: A respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute with nasal
flaring indicates significant respiratory distress in a newborn. Normal
respiratory rates range from 30 to 60 breaths per minute. Nasal flaring
is a compensatory mechanism to decrease airway resistance and
reflects increased work of breathing. Acrocyanosis is a normal finding in
the first 24 hours. A symetric Moro reflex is normal. A single transverse
palmar crease is a soft sign that can be associated with genetic
disorders like Down syndrome but is not a medical emergency requiring
immediate respiratory intervention.
, 4|Page
5. A postpartum client who delivered vaginally 12 hours ago reports
perineal pain rated 7 out of 10. Fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and
lochia is moderate rubra. Which nursing action is most appropriate
initially?
A. Administer the prescribed oral analgesic.
B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
C. Encourage the client to ambulate to the bathroom.
D. Perform a straight catheterization for urinary retention.
Answer: B
Explanation: In the first 24 hours postpartum, perineal pain is most
effectively managed with cold therapy. An ice pack causes
vasoconstriction, which reduces edema formation, inflammation, and
local nerve conduction, thereby providing analgesia. An oral analgesic is
also appropriate but cold therapy should be applied locally as a first-
line measure for edema-related pain. A firm fundus and moderate
lochia rule out a boggy fundus with excessive bleeding. There is no
indication of bladder distention.
6. A nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about hyperbilirubinemia.
Which statement by a parent indicates a correct understanding of the
teaching?
A. "Physiologic jaundice appearing in the first 24 hours is expected and
harmless."
B. "Putting the baby in indirect sunlight will break down the bilirubin
safely."
