NR511 Week 8 Final Exam
Question 66: Primary prevention is defined as which of the following?
Answers:
• A Interventions designed to prevent disease.
• B Interventions designed to prevent complications.
• C Interventions to find asymptomatic conditions.
• D Interventions including screening tests.
• E Interventions to find disease processes at an early stage.
Right Answer and Rationale
The right answer is A.
A. Interventions designed to prevent disease.
, • Primary Prevention focuses on preventing the initial development of a disease or injury.
These interventions occur before the health problem arises.
• Examples: Immunizations (vaccines), health education, wearing a seatbelt, and promoting
healthy diets.
Based on the image of the exam question, here is the extraction and the correct answer.
Extracted Question and Answers
Question 90: A 17-year-old male presents with acute ankle pain and swelling after twisting his
ankle during a basketball game. Physical examination reveals moderate swelling, ecchymosis,
and limited range of motion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answers:
• A Third-degree ankle sprain
• B First-degree ankle sprain
• C Achilles tendon rupture
• D Second-degree ankle sprain
Right Answer and Rationale
The right answer is D.
,D. Second-degree ankle sprain
• Rationale: Ankle sprains are graded based on the severity of ligament damage. The
presentation of moderate swelling, ecchymosis (bruising), and limited range of motion
is characteristic of a Grade II (Second-degree) sprain.
o Grade II Sprain: Involves a partial tear of the ligament. It causes moderate pain,
significant swelling, bruising, and some functional impairment (difficulty walking,
limited movement).
Based on the image of the exam question, here is the extraction and the correct answer.
Extracted Question and Answers
Question 85: A 28-year-old female presents to the primary care clinic with dysuria, urinary
frequency, and suprapubic discomfort for the past two days. She denies fever, flank pain, or
vaginal discharge. A clean-catch midstream urine sample shows >100,000 organisms/mL of the
same morphology. An uncomplicated, lower urinary tract infection (UTI) is diagnosed. What
first-line treatment should be nurse practitioner order for this patient?
Answers:
• A Ciprofloxacin 250 mg two times daily × 3 days
• B Amoxicillin 500 mg two times daily × 10 days
• C Cefaclor 250 mg three times daily × 7 days
• D Nitrofurantoin 100 mg two times daily × 5 days
, Right Answer and Rationale
The right answer is D.
D. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg two times daily × 5 days
• Rationale: For an uncomplicated cystitis (lower UTI) in an otherwise healthy
premenopausal woman, first-line treatment guidelines generally recommend a short course
of an antibiotic with high efficacy and low resistance rates.
o Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid/Macrodantin) is a primary first-line agent, and the
recommended dosage for extended-release is 100 mg twice daily for 5 days.
o It achieves high concentrations in the urine, making it very effective for UTIs, and it is
preferred over fluoroquinolones (like Ciprofloxacin) to prevent unnecessary resistance
development.
Question 95: A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of dry eyes that have
been persistent for the past several months. She reports experiencing a gritty sensation, redness,
and intermittent blurred vision, particularly after prolonged screen time. Upon examination, the
nurse practitioner notes diminished tear production during a Schirmer test. The patient has no
significant past medical history and is not taking any medications. Which of the following is the
most appropriate first-level treatment for this patient's dry eyes?
Answers:
• A Oral omega-3 fatty acids
• B Artificial tears
• C Punctal plugs
• D Topical cyclosporine A
Question 66: Primary prevention is defined as which of the following?
Answers:
• A Interventions designed to prevent disease.
• B Interventions designed to prevent complications.
• C Interventions to find asymptomatic conditions.
• D Interventions including screening tests.
• E Interventions to find disease processes at an early stage.
Right Answer and Rationale
The right answer is A.
A. Interventions designed to prevent disease.
, • Primary Prevention focuses on preventing the initial development of a disease or injury.
These interventions occur before the health problem arises.
• Examples: Immunizations (vaccines), health education, wearing a seatbelt, and promoting
healthy diets.
Based on the image of the exam question, here is the extraction and the correct answer.
Extracted Question and Answers
Question 90: A 17-year-old male presents with acute ankle pain and swelling after twisting his
ankle during a basketball game. Physical examination reveals moderate swelling, ecchymosis,
and limited range of motion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answers:
• A Third-degree ankle sprain
• B First-degree ankle sprain
• C Achilles tendon rupture
• D Second-degree ankle sprain
Right Answer and Rationale
The right answer is D.
,D. Second-degree ankle sprain
• Rationale: Ankle sprains are graded based on the severity of ligament damage. The
presentation of moderate swelling, ecchymosis (bruising), and limited range of motion
is characteristic of a Grade II (Second-degree) sprain.
o Grade II Sprain: Involves a partial tear of the ligament. It causes moderate pain,
significant swelling, bruising, and some functional impairment (difficulty walking,
limited movement).
Based on the image of the exam question, here is the extraction and the correct answer.
Extracted Question and Answers
Question 85: A 28-year-old female presents to the primary care clinic with dysuria, urinary
frequency, and suprapubic discomfort for the past two days. She denies fever, flank pain, or
vaginal discharge. A clean-catch midstream urine sample shows >100,000 organisms/mL of the
same morphology. An uncomplicated, lower urinary tract infection (UTI) is diagnosed. What
first-line treatment should be nurse practitioner order for this patient?
Answers:
• A Ciprofloxacin 250 mg two times daily × 3 days
• B Amoxicillin 500 mg two times daily × 10 days
• C Cefaclor 250 mg three times daily × 7 days
• D Nitrofurantoin 100 mg two times daily × 5 days
, Right Answer and Rationale
The right answer is D.
D. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg two times daily × 5 days
• Rationale: For an uncomplicated cystitis (lower UTI) in an otherwise healthy
premenopausal woman, first-line treatment guidelines generally recommend a short course
of an antibiotic with high efficacy and low resistance rates.
o Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid/Macrodantin) is a primary first-line agent, and the
recommended dosage for extended-release is 100 mg twice daily for 5 days.
o It achieves high concentrations in the urine, making it very effective for UTIs, and it is
preferred over fluoroquinolones (like Ciprofloxacin) to prevent unnecessary resistance
development.
Question 95: A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of dry eyes that have
been persistent for the past several months. She reports experiencing a gritty sensation, redness,
and intermittent blurred vision, particularly after prolonged screen time. Upon examination, the
nurse practitioner notes diminished tear production during a Schirmer test. The patient has no
significant past medical history and is not taking any medications. Which of the following is the
most appropriate first-level treatment for this patient's dry eyes?
Answers:
• A Oral omega-3 fatty acids
• B Artificial tears
• C Punctal plugs
• D Topical cyclosporine A
