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NUR 104 Final Exam Blueprint: 150+ Q&As on Asepsis, Mobility, & Elimination

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Are you ready for the NUR 104 Final? This focused question bank drills down into the Fundamentals of Nursing content that instructors love to test. Covering everything from Hand Hygiene and PPE (Contact vs. Airborne Precautions) to Pressure Injury Staging, Safe Patient Transfer Techniques, and Urinary Catheter Care, this guide turns complex concepts into easy-to-remember Q&A pairs.

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NUR 104 Module 8 Final Exam | Questions and Answers | Exam
2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED




1. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which statement best
explains the primary purpose of this action?
A) To sterilize the hands
B) To remove all microorganisms from the skin
C) To reduce the number of transient microorganisms
D) To eliminate resident flora from deep skin layers
Answer: C. To reduce the number of transient microorganisms
Rationale: Hand hygiene aims to minimize transient flora acquired
through patient contact, breaking the chain of infection. It does not
sterilize the hands or completely remove resident flora.


2. The nurse is caring for a patient with Clostridium difficile infection.
Which hand hygiene method is most appropriate?
A) Alcohol-based hand rub only
B) Soap and water handwashing
C) Hand hygiene is not required if gloves are worn

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D) Rinsing hands with sterile water
Answer: B. Soap and water handwashing
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol. Mechanical friction
from soap and water washing is necessary for physical spore removal.


3. A patient is placed on Contact Precautions. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) must the nurse don upon entering the
room?
A) Sterile gown and mask
B) Gloves and gown
C) N95 respirator and gloves
D) Shoe covers and cap
Answer: B. Gloves and gown
Rationale: Contact Precautions require gloves and a gown to prevent
transmission via direct or indirect contact with the patient or
environment.


4. A nursing student observes the staff nurse entering a room labeled
Airborne Precautions. Which action by the nurse indicates correct PPE
use?
A) Applying a surgical mask before entering
B) Removing the N95 respirator before exiting the room
C) Donning an N95 respirator before entering
D) Wearing sterile gloves at all times in the room

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Answer: C. Donning an N95 respirator before entering
Rationale: Airborne precautions require a fit-tested N95 respirator
applied before entry to filter droplet nuclei. It must be removed after
exiting the room.


5. The nurse is donning sterile gloves. Which action would contaminate
the gloves?
A) Grasping the cuff of the first glove with the ungloved hand
B) Inserting the gloved fingers into the cuff of the second glove
C) Keeping gloved hands above the waist level
D) Adjusting the fingers after both gloves are on
Answer: A. Grasping the cuff of the first glove with the ungloved hand
Rationale: The ungloved hand should only touch the folded inner cuff
surface. Grasping the outer cuff contaminates that surface.


6. The nurse sustains a needlestick injury after administering an
injection. What is the priority first action?
A) Notify the supervisor
B) Complete an incident report
C) Wash the site with soap and water
D) Obtain patient consent for HIV testing
Answer: C. Wash the site with soap and water
Rationale: Immediate cleansing of the injury site reduces the risk of
pathogen entry. Reporting follows after first aid.

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7. A patient develops a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F) two days post-
surgery. The nurse suspects this is due to inflammation. Which term
describes this type of fever?
A) Remittent fever
B) Constant fever
C) Inflammatory fever
D) Neurogenic fever
Answer: C. Inflammatory fever
Rationale: Fever due to tissue injury and the subsequent inflammatory
response is classified as inflammatory fever.


8. The nurse is assessing vital signs. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A) Oral temperature 37.2°C
B) Radial pulse 88 beats/min
C) Respiratory rate 10 breaths per minute
D) Blood pressure 118/78 mmHg
Answer: C. Respiratory rate 10 breaths per minute
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 indicates bradypnea and requires
immediate follow-up as it may lead to hypoventilation.

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