1
WGU Pathophysiology D236 Exam Actual
Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style
Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Cellular & Genetic Pathophysiology — Questions 1-12]
Q1: Which of the following best describes the cellular adaptation known as "hypertrophy"?
A. A decrease in cell size resulting from decreased workload.
B. An increase in the number of cells in response to hormonal stimulation.
C. An increase in the size of individual cells in response to increased workload.
D. A change from one mature cell type to another less mature cell type.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in the size of individual cells, which leads to an
increase in the size of the organ, typically occurring in response to increased mechanical demand
or hormonal stimulation (e.g., cardiac muscle in hypertension). Option A describes atrophy;
Option B describes hyperplasia; Option D describes metaplasia.
Q2: What is the most common cause of cellular injury?
A. Genetic mutations.
B. Hypoxia.
C. Chemical injury.
D. Immunologic agents.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxia, or a lack of oxygen supply, is the most common cause of cellular injury
because oxygen is essential for aerobic ATP production; without it, the cell cannot maintain the
sodium-potassium pump or other vital functions. While genetic mutations (A), chemical injury
,2
(C), and immunologic agents (D) cause injury, hypoxia is the fundamental underlying
mechanism in many disease processes like ischemia and infarction.
Q3: A patient has a stroke resulting in brain tissue death. Laboratory analysis reveals the affected
tissue has liquefied. Which type of necrosis is present?
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive necrosis.
C. Caseous necrosis.
D. Fat necrosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis is characteristic of the brain due to its high lipid content and the
presence of hydrolytic enzymes from lysosomes and neutrophils, which digest the dead tissue
into a liquid, pus-like substance. Coagulative necrosis (A) is typical of ischemic injury in the
heart and kidney; Caseous necrosis (C) is seen in tuberculosis; Fat necrosis (D) occurs in the
breast and pancreas.
Q4: Which cellular process is described as "programmed cell death" characterized by cell
shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies without inflammation?
A. Necrosis.
B. Apoptosis.
C. Pyknosis.
D. Autophagy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is a highly regulated, energy-dependent process of programmed cell death
that occurs physiologically (e.g., embryogenesis) or pathologically (e.g., viral infections),
removing unwanted cells without triggering an inflammatory response. Necrosis (A) is
unregulated cell death caused by external injury that causes inflammation. Pyknosis (C) is a
nuclear change seen in necrosis.
,3
Q5: A genetic mutation involves a single base pair substitution that changes a codon, resulting in
the incorporation of a different amino acid into the protein chain. This is known as a:
A. Silent mutation.
B. Missense mutation.
C. Nonsense mutation.
D. Frameshift mutation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A missense mutation is a type of point mutation where a single nucleotide change
results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid, potentially altering the protein's function.
A silent mutation (A) changes the codon but not the amino acid; a nonsense mutation (C) creates
a stop codon; a frameshift mutation (D) involves insertion or deletion of nucleotides, shifting the
reading frame.
Q6: A child is born with three copies of chromosome 21. This chromosomal abnormality is an
example of:
A. Monosomy.
B. Trisomy.
C. Deletion.
D. Translocation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trisomy refers to the presence of three copies of a particular chromosome instead of
the normal two; Trisomy 21 causes Down syndrome. Monosomy (A) is the loss of a
chromosome; Deletion (C) is the loss of a segment of a chromosome; Translocation (D) is the
transfer of a segment from one chromosome to another.
Q7: Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Which of the following best describes the
genotype of a person who is a "carrier" of the disease but does not exhibit symptoms?
A. Homozygous dominant.
, 4
B. Homozygous recessive.
C. Heterozygous.
D. Hemizygous.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An individual who is a carrier of an autosomal recessive disorder like Cystic Fibrosis
has one dominant normal allele and one recessive abnormal allele, making them heterozygous.
They do not exhibit symptoms because the normal allele produces enough functional protein.
Homozygous dominant (A) is unaffected; Homozygous recessive (B) has the disease;
Hemizygous (D) refers to X-linked genes in males.
Q8: Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. Which statement accurately describes the
inheritance pattern of this condition?
A. It affects males and females with equal frequency.
B. Affected fathers pass the gene to all of their sons.
C. Carrier females pass the affected gene to 50% of their sons and 50% of their daughters.
D. Affected males pass the gene to all of their daughters.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since males have only one X chromosome, an affected male (XhY) will pass his X
chromosome (carrying the disease) to all his daughters, making them carriers, while passing his
Y chromosome to his sons (who will be unaffected). Option A is incorrect because X-linked
disorders affect males more frequently; Option B is incorrect because fathers pass Y
chromosomes to sons; Option C is incorrect because daughters would be carriers (50%), not
affected (unless the mother is affected).
Q9: Which of the following is characterized by the replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another mature cell type, usually in response to chronic irritation or stress?
A. Hyperplasia.
B. Dysplasia.
C. Metaplasia.
WGU Pathophysiology D236 Exam Actual
Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style
Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Cellular & Genetic Pathophysiology — Questions 1-12]
Q1: Which of the following best describes the cellular adaptation known as "hypertrophy"?
A. A decrease in cell size resulting from decreased workload.
B. An increase in the number of cells in response to hormonal stimulation.
C. An increase in the size of individual cells in response to increased workload.
D. A change from one mature cell type to another less mature cell type.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in the size of individual cells, which leads to an
increase in the size of the organ, typically occurring in response to increased mechanical demand
or hormonal stimulation (e.g., cardiac muscle in hypertension). Option A describes atrophy;
Option B describes hyperplasia; Option D describes metaplasia.
Q2: What is the most common cause of cellular injury?
A. Genetic mutations.
B. Hypoxia.
C. Chemical injury.
D. Immunologic agents.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxia, or a lack of oxygen supply, is the most common cause of cellular injury
because oxygen is essential for aerobic ATP production; without it, the cell cannot maintain the
sodium-potassium pump or other vital functions. While genetic mutations (A), chemical injury
,2
(C), and immunologic agents (D) cause injury, hypoxia is the fundamental underlying
mechanism in many disease processes like ischemia and infarction.
Q3: A patient has a stroke resulting in brain tissue death. Laboratory analysis reveals the affected
tissue has liquefied. Which type of necrosis is present?
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive necrosis.
C. Caseous necrosis.
D. Fat necrosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis is characteristic of the brain due to its high lipid content and the
presence of hydrolytic enzymes from lysosomes and neutrophils, which digest the dead tissue
into a liquid, pus-like substance. Coagulative necrosis (A) is typical of ischemic injury in the
heart and kidney; Caseous necrosis (C) is seen in tuberculosis; Fat necrosis (D) occurs in the
breast and pancreas.
Q4: Which cellular process is described as "programmed cell death" characterized by cell
shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies without inflammation?
A. Necrosis.
B. Apoptosis.
C. Pyknosis.
D. Autophagy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is a highly regulated, energy-dependent process of programmed cell death
that occurs physiologically (e.g., embryogenesis) or pathologically (e.g., viral infections),
removing unwanted cells without triggering an inflammatory response. Necrosis (A) is
unregulated cell death caused by external injury that causes inflammation. Pyknosis (C) is a
nuclear change seen in necrosis.
,3
Q5: A genetic mutation involves a single base pair substitution that changes a codon, resulting in
the incorporation of a different amino acid into the protein chain. This is known as a:
A. Silent mutation.
B. Missense mutation.
C. Nonsense mutation.
D. Frameshift mutation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A missense mutation is a type of point mutation where a single nucleotide change
results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid, potentially altering the protein's function.
A silent mutation (A) changes the codon but not the amino acid; a nonsense mutation (C) creates
a stop codon; a frameshift mutation (D) involves insertion or deletion of nucleotides, shifting the
reading frame.
Q6: A child is born with three copies of chromosome 21. This chromosomal abnormality is an
example of:
A. Monosomy.
B. Trisomy.
C. Deletion.
D. Translocation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trisomy refers to the presence of three copies of a particular chromosome instead of
the normal two; Trisomy 21 causes Down syndrome. Monosomy (A) is the loss of a
chromosome; Deletion (C) is the loss of a segment of a chromosome; Translocation (D) is the
transfer of a segment from one chromosome to another.
Q7: Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Which of the following best describes the
genotype of a person who is a "carrier" of the disease but does not exhibit symptoms?
A. Homozygous dominant.
, 4
B. Homozygous recessive.
C. Heterozygous.
D. Hemizygous.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An individual who is a carrier of an autosomal recessive disorder like Cystic Fibrosis
has one dominant normal allele and one recessive abnormal allele, making them heterozygous.
They do not exhibit symptoms because the normal allele produces enough functional protein.
Homozygous dominant (A) is unaffected; Homozygous recessive (B) has the disease;
Hemizygous (D) refers to X-linked genes in males.
Q8: Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. Which statement accurately describes the
inheritance pattern of this condition?
A. It affects males and females with equal frequency.
B. Affected fathers pass the gene to all of their sons.
C. Carrier females pass the affected gene to 50% of their sons and 50% of their daughters.
D. Affected males pass the gene to all of their daughters.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since males have only one X chromosome, an affected male (XhY) will pass his X
chromosome (carrying the disease) to all his daughters, making them carriers, while passing his
Y chromosome to his sons (who will be unaffected). Option A is incorrect because X-linked
disorders affect males more frequently; Option B is incorrect because fathers pass Y
chromosomes to sons; Option C is incorrect because daughters would be carriers (50%), not
affected (unless the mother is affected).
Q9: Which of the following is characterized by the replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another mature cell type, usually in response to chronic irritation or stress?
A. Hyperplasia.
B. Dysplasia.
C. Metaplasia.
