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Primary Care: Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing Exam
2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is performing a
wellness examination on a 55-year-old patient. According to the Health
Belief Model, which factor is most influential in determining whether
the patient will adopt a preventive health behavior?
A. The patient's income level and access to transportation.
B. The patient's perception of susceptibility to a disease and the
perceived severity of that disease.
C. The provider's ability to prescribe the newest medication on the
market.
D. The patient's educational attainment level.
Answer: B. The Health Belief Model posits that a patient's perceived
susceptibility to a condition and its perceived severity, weighed against
the perceived benefits of and barriers to taking action, are the primary
determinants of health behavior change. This model focuses on
individual perceptions rather than purely logistical or demographic
factors.
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2. A 24-year-old patient with asthma reports needing to use their
albuterol inhaler 4 times a week on average. According to current
guideline-based classification, how would the APRN categorize the
severity of this patient's asthma?
A. Intermittent
B. Mild persistent
C. Moderate persistent
D. Severe persistent
Answer: B. Using the National Asthma Education and Prevention
Program (NAEPP) guidelines, symptoms requiring a short-acting beta-
agonist more than 2 days per week but not daily, or nighttime
awakenings 3-4 times per month, classify the asthma as mild persistent.
Moderate persistent would require daily symptoms.
3. An APRN is examining the fundus of a patient's eye with an
ophthalmoscope and notes the optic disc margins are blurred and the
physiologic cup is obliterated. What is the most likely interpretation of
this finding?
A. Normal variant in an older adult
B. Diabetic retinopathy
C. Papilledema
D. Cataract formation
Answer: C. Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased
intracranial pressure. Its hallmarks are blurred, hyperemic disc margins
and the loss of the physiologic cup. It is an emergent finding, not a
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benign variant. Diabetic retinopathy typically presents with
microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and exudates.
4. A 45-year-old male patient presents with a blood pressure reading of
148/92 mmHg. A follow-up reading two weeks later is 146/90 mmHg.
He has no significant past medical history. What stage of hypertension
does the APRN document, according to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Elevated
B. Stage 1 hypertension
C. Stage 2 hypertension
D. Hypertensive urgency
Answer: B. Stage 1 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure
of 130-139 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mmHg. Stage 2
hypertension is defined as systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or greater or
diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg or greater. An average of 147/91 mmHg
meets the criteria for Stage 2 hypertension. (Correction to options:
With readings averaging 147/91, this is Stage 2. Stage 2 is >140 or >90.
Option C is correct.) Answer: C. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a
systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or higher or a diastolic pressure of 90
mmHg or higher. Elevated is systolic 120-129 and diastolic less than 80.
5. A 72-year-old patient presents with acute onset of painless vision
loss in the right eye, described as a "curtain coming down."
Fundoscopic examination reveals a pale, opaque retina with a cherry-
red macula. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Macular degeneration
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B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Retinal detachment
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Answer: B. The classic presentation of a central retinal artery occlusion
(CRAO) is sudden, painless, severe vision loss. The retina becomes pale
and edematous, which makes the red choroid at the fovea stand out as
a "cherry-red spot." This is a true ocular emergency. Retinal
detachment presents with flashes, floaters, and a shadow.
6. During a sports physical, an APRN auscultates a 16-year-old male in
the left lateral decubitus position. A low-pitched, rumbling diastolic
sound is heard at the apex with the bell of the stethoscope. What does
this finding most likely represent?
A. Physiologic S3, which is a normal finding in adolescents
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Ventricular septal defect
Answer: A. A low-pitched diastolic sound heard at the apex is an S3
gallop. In children, adolescents, and young adults, a physiologic S3 is a
common, normal finding reflecting rapid ventricular filling. Mitral
stenosis also produces a low-pitched diastolic rumble, but is
pathological and less common in this demographic without rheumatic
fever history.
7. A 30-year-old female patient presents with a 3-month history of
weight gain, fatigue, and constipation. Physical exam reveals
Primary Care: Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing Exam
2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is performing a
wellness examination on a 55-year-old patient. According to the Health
Belief Model, which factor is most influential in determining whether
the patient will adopt a preventive health behavior?
A. The patient's income level and access to transportation.
B. The patient's perception of susceptibility to a disease and the
perceived severity of that disease.
C. The provider's ability to prescribe the newest medication on the
market.
D. The patient's educational attainment level.
Answer: B. The Health Belief Model posits that a patient's perceived
susceptibility to a condition and its perceived severity, weighed against
the perceived benefits of and barriers to taking action, are the primary
determinants of health behavior change. This model focuses on
individual perceptions rather than purely logistical or demographic
factors.
,2|Page
2. A 24-year-old patient with asthma reports needing to use their
albuterol inhaler 4 times a week on average. According to current
guideline-based classification, how would the APRN categorize the
severity of this patient's asthma?
A. Intermittent
B. Mild persistent
C. Moderate persistent
D. Severe persistent
Answer: B. Using the National Asthma Education and Prevention
Program (NAEPP) guidelines, symptoms requiring a short-acting beta-
agonist more than 2 days per week but not daily, or nighttime
awakenings 3-4 times per month, classify the asthma as mild persistent.
Moderate persistent would require daily symptoms.
3. An APRN is examining the fundus of a patient's eye with an
ophthalmoscope and notes the optic disc margins are blurred and the
physiologic cup is obliterated. What is the most likely interpretation of
this finding?
A. Normal variant in an older adult
B. Diabetic retinopathy
C. Papilledema
D. Cataract formation
Answer: C. Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased
intracranial pressure. Its hallmarks are blurred, hyperemic disc margins
and the loss of the physiologic cup. It is an emergent finding, not a
,3|Page
benign variant. Diabetic retinopathy typically presents with
microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and exudates.
4. A 45-year-old male patient presents with a blood pressure reading of
148/92 mmHg. A follow-up reading two weeks later is 146/90 mmHg.
He has no significant past medical history. What stage of hypertension
does the APRN document, according to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Elevated
B. Stage 1 hypertension
C. Stage 2 hypertension
D. Hypertensive urgency
Answer: B. Stage 1 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure
of 130-139 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mmHg. Stage 2
hypertension is defined as systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or greater or
diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg or greater. An average of 147/91 mmHg
meets the criteria for Stage 2 hypertension. (Correction to options:
With readings averaging 147/91, this is Stage 2. Stage 2 is >140 or >90.
Option C is correct.) Answer: C. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a
systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or higher or a diastolic pressure of 90
mmHg or higher. Elevated is systolic 120-129 and diastolic less than 80.
5. A 72-year-old patient presents with acute onset of painless vision
loss in the right eye, described as a "curtain coming down."
Fundoscopic examination reveals a pale, opaque retina with a cherry-
red macula. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Macular degeneration
, 4|Page
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Retinal detachment
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Answer: B. The classic presentation of a central retinal artery occlusion
(CRAO) is sudden, painless, severe vision loss. The retina becomes pale
and edematous, which makes the red choroid at the fovea stand out as
a "cherry-red spot." This is a true ocular emergency. Retinal
detachment presents with flashes, floaters, and a shadow.
6. During a sports physical, an APRN auscultates a 16-year-old male in
the left lateral decubitus position. A low-pitched, rumbling diastolic
sound is heard at the apex with the bell of the stethoscope. What does
this finding most likely represent?
A. Physiologic S3, which is a normal finding in adolescents
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Ventricular septal defect
Answer: A. A low-pitched diastolic sound heard at the apex is an S3
gallop. In children, adolescents, and young adults, a physiologic S3 is a
common, normal finding reflecting rapid ventricular filling. Mitral
stenosis also produces a low-pitched diastolic rumble, but is
pathological and less common in this demographic without rheumatic
fever history.
7. A 30-year-old female patient presents with a 3-month history of
weight gain, fatigue, and constipation. Physical exam reveals
