1
HESI PN Exit Exam V1-V7 Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS - OFFICIAL SECTIONS:
Version 1: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 1-75
Version 2: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 76-150
Version 3: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 151-225
Version 4: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 226-300
Version 5: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 301-375
Version 6: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 376-450
Version 7: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 451-525
[VERSION 1: Questions 1-75]
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which action should
the nurse take to prevent hematoma formation?
A. Massage the site vigorously after injection.
B. Do not aspirate before injecting and do not rub the site after injection.
C. Inject the medication rapidly.
D. Apply a warm compress immediately after the injection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant; massaging or rubbing the injection site can cause tissue
trauma and bleeding (hematoma). Aspiration is no longer recommended for subcutaneous
heparin injections as it increases bruising. Injecting slowly (Choice C) minimizes discomfort,
,2
and cold (Choice D) can be used later, but immediate rubbing is the primary contraindication to
prevent hematoma.
Q2: A client with a history of falls is admitted. Which intervention is most important for the
nurse to implement to ensure safety?
A. Place the bed in the lowest position.
B. Keep the side rails up at all times.
C. Use a fall risk alert wristband and keep fall-risk items (call light, walker, glasses) within
reach.
D. Restrain the client to the bed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should use a color-coded wristband to alert staff of fall risk and ensure
necessary items are within reach to prevent the client from getting out of bed unsafely. Side rails
(Choice B) can be considered a restraint and are not the primary safety intervention for fall
prevention. Restraints (Choice D) are a last resort.
Q3: A client is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion
starts, the client reports flank pain and chills. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion and obtain vital signs.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the IV line open with normal saline.
C. Administer antipyretics for the fever.
D. Recheck the unit compatibility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flank pain and chills are classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
nurse must stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further hemolysis and keep the IV line
open with normal saline to maintain IV access in case emergency meds are needed. Slowing the
rate (Choice A) is insufficient.
,3
Q4: The nurse is teaching a client about warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I will take a double dose if I miss one."
C. "I can take aspirin whenever I have a headache."
D. "I will check my pulse every day."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vitamin K found in green leafy vegetables affects warfarin's efficacy. The client
should consume a consistent amount to keep INR stable. Choice B increases bleeding risk;
Choice C increases bleeding risk (aspirin); Choice D is incorrect (INR is monitored, not pulse).
Q5: Which client is at greatest risk for developing a pressure injury?
A. A client who is incontinent of urine and has limited mobility.
B. A client who walks independently to the bathroom every 2 hours.
C. A client who eats a high-protein diet.
D. A client who is alert and oriented.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Moisture (incontinence) and impaired mobility (pressure) are the two primary risk
factors for pressure injuries. Choices B, C, and D describe factors that reduce risk (mobility,
nutrition, alertness).
Q6: A client is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign should the nurse report to the provider
immediately as it indicates toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute.
B. Nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (yellow halos).
C. Increased urine output.
D. Slight weight gain.
, 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal upset (nausea, vomiting) and
visual changes (halos around lights). Bradycardia (Choice A) is also a sign but a rate of 60 is
therapeutic for many adults; however, Choice B is more specific to toxicity onset.
Q7: A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling jittery and diaphoretic. The nurse checks the
blood glucose and finds it to be 58 mg/dL. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Give the client 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates.
B. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
C. Call the Rapid Response Team.
D. Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is experiencing hypoglycemia. The "15-15 Rule" applies: give 15 g of fast-
acting carbs (juice, glucose tabs), wait 15 minutes, and recheck. IV dextrose (Choice B) is for
unconscious clients or those unable to swallow.
Q8: When obtaining a sterile urine specimen from a female client, how should the nurse clean
the meatus?
A. From the proximal urethra towards the meatus.
B. In a circular motion from the meatus outward in one stroke.
C. Back and forth over the meatus.
D. With soap and water, then dry thoroughly.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prevent contamination of the specimen, the nurse should clean the meatus in a
single circular motion from the center (meatus) outward, moving away from the urinary tract.
Choice A brings contaminants toward the meatus.
HESI PN Exit Exam V1-V7 Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS - OFFICIAL SECTIONS:
Version 1: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 1-75
Version 2: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 76-150
Version 3: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 151-225
Version 4: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 226-300
Version 5: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 301-375
Version 6: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 376-450
Version 7: Comprehensive PN Exit Exam (75 Questions) 451-525
[VERSION 1: Questions 1-75]
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which action should
the nurse take to prevent hematoma formation?
A. Massage the site vigorously after injection.
B. Do not aspirate before injecting and do not rub the site after injection.
C. Inject the medication rapidly.
D. Apply a warm compress immediately after the injection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant; massaging or rubbing the injection site can cause tissue
trauma and bleeding (hematoma). Aspiration is no longer recommended for subcutaneous
heparin injections as it increases bruising. Injecting slowly (Choice C) minimizes discomfort,
,2
and cold (Choice D) can be used later, but immediate rubbing is the primary contraindication to
prevent hematoma.
Q2: A client with a history of falls is admitted. Which intervention is most important for the
nurse to implement to ensure safety?
A. Place the bed in the lowest position.
B. Keep the side rails up at all times.
C. Use a fall risk alert wristband and keep fall-risk items (call light, walker, glasses) within
reach.
D. Restrain the client to the bed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should use a color-coded wristband to alert staff of fall risk and ensure
necessary items are within reach to prevent the client from getting out of bed unsafely. Side rails
(Choice B) can be considered a restraint and are not the primary safety intervention for fall
prevention. Restraints (Choice D) are a last resort.
Q3: A client is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion
starts, the client reports flank pain and chills. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion and obtain vital signs.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the IV line open with normal saline.
C. Administer antipyretics for the fever.
D. Recheck the unit compatibility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flank pain and chills are classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
nurse must stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further hemolysis and keep the IV line
open with normal saline to maintain IV access in case emergency meds are needed. Slowing the
rate (Choice A) is insufficient.
,3
Q4: The nurse is teaching a client about warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I will take a double dose if I miss one."
C. "I can take aspirin whenever I have a headache."
D. "I will check my pulse every day."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vitamin K found in green leafy vegetables affects warfarin's efficacy. The client
should consume a consistent amount to keep INR stable. Choice B increases bleeding risk;
Choice C increases bleeding risk (aspirin); Choice D is incorrect (INR is monitored, not pulse).
Q5: Which client is at greatest risk for developing a pressure injury?
A. A client who is incontinent of urine and has limited mobility.
B. A client who walks independently to the bathroom every 2 hours.
C. A client who eats a high-protein diet.
D. A client who is alert and oriented.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Moisture (incontinence) and impaired mobility (pressure) are the two primary risk
factors for pressure injuries. Choices B, C, and D describe factors that reduce risk (mobility,
nutrition, alertness).
Q6: A client is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign should the nurse report to the provider
immediately as it indicates toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute.
B. Nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (yellow halos).
C. Increased urine output.
D. Slight weight gain.
, 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal upset (nausea, vomiting) and
visual changes (halos around lights). Bradycardia (Choice A) is also a sign but a rate of 60 is
therapeutic for many adults; however, Choice B is more specific to toxicity onset.
Q7: A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling jittery and diaphoretic. The nurse checks the
blood glucose and finds it to be 58 mg/dL. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Give the client 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates.
B. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
C. Call the Rapid Response Team.
D. Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is experiencing hypoglycemia. The "15-15 Rule" applies: give 15 g of fast-
acting carbs (juice, glucose tabs), wait 15 minutes, and recheck. IV dextrose (Choice B) is for
unconscious clients or those unable to swallow.
Q8: When obtaining a sterile urine specimen from a female client, how should the nurse clean
the meatus?
A. From the proximal urethra towards the meatus.
B. In a circular motion from the meatus outward in one stroke.
C. Back and forth over the meatus.
D. With soap and water, then dry thoroughly.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prevent contamination of the specimen, the nurse should clean the meatus in a
single circular motion from the center (meatus) outward, moving away from the urinary tract.
Choice A brings contaminants toward the meatus.
