Test Bank for Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 8th Edition
2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. Which of the following is the gold standard imaging modality for
evaluating acute intracranial hemorrhage?
A. Skull radiography
B. Non-contrast computed tomography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging with contrast
D. Ultrasound
Answer: B. Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) is the gold
standard for acute intracranial hemorrhage because it is rapid, widely
available, and highly sensitive for detecting acute blood, which appears
hyperdense against the brain parenchyma. MRI, while useful for
chronic bleeds, takes longer and is less practical in emergency settings.
2. Cellular adaptation characterized by an increase in cell size due to
increased functional demand is termed:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
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C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
Answer: B. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, not cell number,
typically seen in tissues like cardiac muscle subjected to increased
workload, such as in hypertension. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell
number.
3. The primary radiographic finding in a patient with congestive heart
failure is:
A. Costophrenic angle blunting
B. Cardiomegaly
C. Kerley B lines
D. Pleural effusion
Answer: B. Cardiomegaly, often assessed by a cardiothoracic ratio
greater than 50%, is a fundamental finding indicating ventricular
dilation or hypertrophy. While Kerley B lines and pleural effusions are
signs of CHF, cardiomegaly represents the underlying cardiac
pathology.
4. A "swiss cheese" or "punched-out" appearance in the cortex of a long
bone is most characteristic of which pathology?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Paget's disease
D. Osteomyelitis
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Answer: B. Multiple myeloma is characterized by well-defined, purely
lytic, "punched-out" lesions resulting from neoplastic plasma cell
proliferation in the red marrow. This pattern reflects the destruction of
cancellous bone without significant periosteal reaction.
5. Neoplastic disease arising from the glial cells of the central nervous
system is classified as:
A. Meningioma
B. Schwannoma
C. Glioma
D. Pituitary adenoma
Answer: C. Gliomas, such as glioblastoma multiforme and astrocytoma,
originate from glial cells. Meningiomas arise from the meninges, and
schwannomas from Schwann cells.
6. A contrast-filled outpouching arising from the anterior wall of the
esophagus, proximal to an area of cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction,
is a:
A. Traction diverticulum
B. Epiphrenic diverticulum
C. Zenker's diverticulum
D. Esophageal varices
Answer: C. Zenker's diverticulum is a pulsion diverticulum that
herniates through a posterior muscular defect but presents anteriorly
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on a barium swallow, typically at the pharyngoesophageal junction. It is
associated with cricopharyngeal muscle spasm or dysfunction.
7. The "double bubble" sign on an abdominal radiograph of a neonate is
pathognomonic for:
A. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Intussusception
D. Hirschsprung disease
Answer: B. Duodenal atresia results in gas distension of the stomach
and the first portion of the duodenum, creating a "double bubble"
appearance. No gas is seen in the distal bowel, indicating a complete
obstruction.
8. Which type of atelectasis is caused by the relaxation of contact
between the parietal and visceral pleura due to air or fluid in the
pleural space?
A. Obstructive atelectasis
B. Compression atelectasis
C. Contraction atelectasis
D. Passive atelectasis
Answer: D. Passive atelectasis, also known as relaxation atelectasis,
occurs when a pneumothorax or pleural effusion eliminates the
negative intrapleural pressure, allowing the lung to passively recoil and
collapse due to its elastic properties.