NURS 6501 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM | REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS NEWEST VERSION 2026/2027 (PASS
GUARANTEE)
1. What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium pump? ANSWER :
To maintain electrochemical gradients by pumping 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in,
requiring ATP.
2. A patient has a genetic disorder where cells program themselves to die.
What process is occurring? ANSWER : Apoptosis (programmed cell death).
3. Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes capable of cellular
autodigestion when released during cell injury? ANSWER : Lysosomes.
4. What is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? ANSWER
: Eukaryotes contain membrane-bound organelles and a true nucleus;
prokaryotes do not.
5. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, why do sodium and water move into
the cell? ANSWER : The Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump fails due to decreased ATP
production.
6. What is the consequence of plasma membrane damage to mitochondria?
ANSWER : Influx of calcium ions halts ATP production.
7. Which cell component produces hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂)? ANSWER :
Peroxisomes.
8. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus? ANSWER : Packages proteins
for secretion outside the cell.
9. During which phase of the cell cycle do centromeres split and sister
chromatids separate? ANSWER : Anaphase.
10. What is hypertrophy? ANSWER : An increase in cell size (not number) in
response to increased workload.
,11. A patient's scar extends beyond the original wound boundaries. What
impaired process caused this? ANSWER : Impaired collagen synthesis
(resulting in keloid formation).
12. What karyotype is seen in Klinefelter syndrome? ANSWER : XXY.
13. What is the primary risk factor for Down syndrome? ANSWER : Advanced
maternal age (pregnancy in women over 35).
14. Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of genetic abnormality? ANSWER :
Autosomal recessive.
15. What is expressivity in genetics? ANSWER : The degree to which a
genotype is expressed phenotypically.
16. Which transport mechanism moves Na⁺ and Ca²⁺ simultaneously in the
same direction? ANSWER : Symport.
17. What is the primary pathologic alteration in cystic fibrosis? ANSWER :
Excessive mucus production due to defective chloride transport.
18. A child has soft bones and skeletal deformities due to failed ossification.
What condition is this? ANSWER : Rickets (vitamin D deficiency).
19. What is the purpose of the inflammatory process? ANSWER : To prevent
infection of injured tissue and initiate healing.
20. Which cells are responsible for bone resorption? ANSWER : Osteoclasts.
21. Which cells function to maintain bone matrix? ANSWER : Osteocytes.
22. Which cells form new bone? ANSWER : Osteoblasts.
23. Skeletal muscles make up approximately what percentage of body
weight? ANSWER : 40%.
24. What is the primary function of peroxisomes? ANSWER : To break down
fatty acids and detoxify harmful substances using oxidative reactions.
25. What is the result of impaired epithelialization during wound healing?
ANSWER : Delayed wound closure and increased risk of infection.
26. What is the primary difference between necrosis and apoptosis?
ANSWER : Necrosis is unplanned cell death due to injury; apoptosis is
programmed, controlled cell death.
, 27. What causes cellular swelling during hypoxic injury? ANSWER : Failure of
the Na⁺/K⁺ pump leads to water following sodium into the cell by osmosis.
28. What is the role of ribosomes? ANSWER : Protein synthesis.
29. What is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? ANSWER : Lipid
synthesis and detoxification.
30. What is the primary characteristic of metaplasia? ANSWER : Replacement
of one differentiated cell type with another.
SECTION 2: INFLAMMATION & IMMUNITY (Questions 31-60)
31. What are the cardinal signs of local inflammation? ANSWER : Redness,
heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function.
32. Which chemical signals attract cells to an injury site during acute
inflammation? ANSWER : Chemotaxis (chemokines).
33. What is the primary vasodilator released during inflammation? ANSWER
: Histamine.
34. What is the function of kinins in inflammation? ANSWER : Increase
vascular permeability and cause pain.
35. Which cells are the first responders to acute inflammation? ANSWER :
Neutrophils.
36. What is the primary function of macrophages in chronic inflammation?
ANSWER : Phagocytosis and antigen presentation.
37. What is the difference between exudate and transudate? ANSWER :
Exudate has high protein content (inflammation); transudate has low protein
(hydrostatic pressure).
38. What is the purpose of fever in the inflammatory response? ANSWER : To
enhance immune function and inhibit pathogen growth.
39. What is the primary antibody involved in allergic reactions? ANSWER :
IgE.
40. Which antibody is most abundant in blood? ANSWER : IgG.
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS NEWEST VERSION 2026/2027 (PASS
GUARANTEE)
1. What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium pump? ANSWER :
To maintain electrochemical gradients by pumping 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in,
requiring ATP.
2. A patient has a genetic disorder where cells program themselves to die.
What process is occurring? ANSWER : Apoptosis (programmed cell death).
3. Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes capable of cellular
autodigestion when released during cell injury? ANSWER : Lysosomes.
4. What is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? ANSWER
: Eukaryotes contain membrane-bound organelles and a true nucleus;
prokaryotes do not.
5. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, why do sodium and water move into
the cell? ANSWER : The Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump fails due to decreased ATP
production.
6. What is the consequence of plasma membrane damage to mitochondria?
ANSWER : Influx of calcium ions halts ATP production.
7. Which cell component produces hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂)? ANSWER :
Peroxisomes.
8. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus? ANSWER : Packages proteins
for secretion outside the cell.
9. During which phase of the cell cycle do centromeres split and sister
chromatids separate? ANSWER : Anaphase.
10. What is hypertrophy? ANSWER : An increase in cell size (not number) in
response to increased workload.
,11. A patient's scar extends beyond the original wound boundaries. What
impaired process caused this? ANSWER : Impaired collagen synthesis
(resulting in keloid formation).
12. What karyotype is seen in Klinefelter syndrome? ANSWER : XXY.
13. What is the primary risk factor for Down syndrome? ANSWER : Advanced
maternal age (pregnancy in women over 35).
14. Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of genetic abnormality? ANSWER :
Autosomal recessive.
15. What is expressivity in genetics? ANSWER : The degree to which a
genotype is expressed phenotypically.
16. Which transport mechanism moves Na⁺ and Ca²⁺ simultaneously in the
same direction? ANSWER : Symport.
17. What is the primary pathologic alteration in cystic fibrosis? ANSWER :
Excessive mucus production due to defective chloride transport.
18. A child has soft bones and skeletal deformities due to failed ossification.
What condition is this? ANSWER : Rickets (vitamin D deficiency).
19. What is the purpose of the inflammatory process? ANSWER : To prevent
infection of injured tissue and initiate healing.
20. Which cells are responsible for bone resorption? ANSWER : Osteoclasts.
21. Which cells function to maintain bone matrix? ANSWER : Osteocytes.
22. Which cells form new bone? ANSWER : Osteoblasts.
23. Skeletal muscles make up approximately what percentage of body
weight? ANSWER : 40%.
24. What is the primary function of peroxisomes? ANSWER : To break down
fatty acids and detoxify harmful substances using oxidative reactions.
25. What is the result of impaired epithelialization during wound healing?
ANSWER : Delayed wound closure and increased risk of infection.
26. What is the primary difference between necrosis and apoptosis?
ANSWER : Necrosis is unplanned cell death due to injury; apoptosis is
programmed, controlled cell death.
, 27. What causes cellular swelling during hypoxic injury? ANSWER : Failure of
the Na⁺/K⁺ pump leads to water following sodium into the cell by osmosis.
28. What is the role of ribosomes? ANSWER : Protein synthesis.
29. What is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? ANSWER : Lipid
synthesis and detoxification.
30. What is the primary characteristic of metaplasia? ANSWER : Replacement
of one differentiated cell type with another.
SECTION 2: INFLAMMATION & IMMUNITY (Questions 31-60)
31. What are the cardinal signs of local inflammation? ANSWER : Redness,
heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function.
32. Which chemical signals attract cells to an injury site during acute
inflammation? ANSWER : Chemotaxis (chemokines).
33. What is the primary vasodilator released during inflammation? ANSWER
: Histamine.
34. What is the function of kinins in inflammation? ANSWER : Increase
vascular permeability and cause pain.
35. Which cells are the first responders to acute inflammation? ANSWER :
Neutrophils.
36. What is the primary function of macrophages in chronic inflammation?
ANSWER : Phagocytosis and antigen presentation.
37. What is the difference between exudate and transudate? ANSWER :
Exudate has high protein content (inflammation); transudate has low protein
(hydrostatic pressure).
38. What is the purpose of fever in the inflammatory response? ANSWER : To
enhance immune function and inhibit pathogen growth.
39. What is the primary antibody involved in allergic reactions? ANSWER :
IgE.
40. Which antibody is most abundant in blood? ANSWER : IgG.
