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NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM Real Questions and Verified EXAM (Latest Update) Answers 100 Correct Already Graded A CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING.

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NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM Real Questions and Verified EXAM (Latest Update) Answers 100 Correct Already Graded A CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING.

Instelling
Advance Nursing
Vak
Advance nursing

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM
EXAM (Latest Update) Real Questions and
Answers | 100% Correct | Already Verified
Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
COLLEGE OF NURSING.

1. Mutations in the encoding of histones modifying proteins have been shown to
influence the development of what congenial condition Heart disease

2. Signals to change or modify epigenetic tags are ... from where?

Signals come from inside the cell, from neighboring cells or the environment

3. During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the
greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities In utero

4. The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications is?
Epigenetic modifications are REVERSIBLE
5. Explain the characteristics of totipotent stem cells and the sources of it Totipotent
cells are cells that can mature into any type of body cell in an organism including the
cells that make up the placenta in mammals. Totipotent cells are only present in mammals
in the first few cell divisions of an embryo.
6. Give 2 examples of totipotent cells
A zygote
Cells in the early embyro up to 5 days
7. What is a Totipotent cell?
Totipotent cells are cells that can differentiate into any type of body cell and extra
embryonic tissue
8. What are the characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome?
1.Chronic feeling of hunger (severe, even life-threatening obesity)
2. Low muscle tone
3. Short
4. Poor sex characteristic development
5. Behavioral problems
6. Poor cognitive development
9. Angelman syndrome is sometimes called "happy puppet syndrome." What are the
signs of this disorder?
1.Severe mental retardation
2. No speech



NR 507 |Page

, 3. Abnormal gait
4. Wide stance
5. Arms held out kinda weird
10. What is the most common genetic cause of Prader-Willi syndrome?
A deletion of a segment of PATERNAL chromosome 15q. The maternal counterpart is
methylated via genomic imprinting.
11. What is the most common genetic cause of Angelman syndrome?
A deletion of a segment of MATERNAL chromosome 15q. The paternal counterpart is
methylated via genomic imprinting.
12. A child with Prader-Willi syndrome has been hospitalized. Which assessment
findings does the nurse expect with this syndrome?
Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by insatiable hunger that can lead to morbid
obesity in childhood. Abnormal, puppetlike gait, paroxysms of inappropriate laughter,
and nonverbal are characteristics seen in Angelman syndrome.
13. The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with chromosomal abnormalities. Which
sign or symptom suggests the boy has Angelman syndrome?
Observation shows jerky ataxic movement

Angelman syndrome is characterized by jerky ataxic movements, similar to a puppet's
gait. Hypotonicity is a symptom of Angelman syndrome as well as Prader Willi syndrome,
and Cri-du-chat. Cleft palate is a symptom of velo-cardio-facial/DiGeorge syndrome
14. What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of inherited
colon cancer?
DNA Damage is left unrepaired
15. When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being
viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers? Environmental
Stressors
16. 42. The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is:
Hemolytic disorders in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice.
17. Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility?
Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the
Rh factor

Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility
18. Rh hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother's second baby, a son. Which factor is
important in understanding how this could develop? The first child was Rh positive
19. The nurse is caring for an infant with hemolytic disease. Which medication should
the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to decrease the bilirubin level? Phenobarbital




NR 507 2|Page

, 20. Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the
newborn? mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive
21. The nurse is caring for a newborn with hemolytic disease of the newborn who is
receiving phototherapy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most
appropriate for the nurse to do?
The nurse turns the newborn every 3 or 4 hours
22. A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What
treatment should be initiated for this patient? Combination antiretroviral therapy

Didanosine therapy once daily
Zidovudine therapy once daily
Monotherapy protease inhibitor therapy
23. A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A nurse realizes the HIV will
attack:
C) helper T cells.
24. The nursing instructor is discussing the development of human immunodeficiency
disease (HIV) with the students. What should the instructor inform the class about
helper T cells?
Fighting infection *
25. A patient has DiGeorge syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse
monitor for in this patient?
Low calcium levels and tetany
26. A nurse is caring for a client who is deficient in T cells. Which result of this T cell
deficiency does the nurse anticipate?
a) Decrease in leukocytes
b) Impaired cellular immunity

T cells are subtypes ofleukocytes, and they are a key factor in cellular immunity;
therefore the client may experience impaired cellular immunity and a decrease in
leukocytes.
27. What is the purpose of pulmonary function testing To identify and measure
pulmonary disease.
28. What is the role of pulmonary function testing?
It serves both a diagnostic and therapeutic role.
It determines how well the lungs work.

29. What does PFT screening do?
It may detect pulmonary abnormalities caused by disease or environmental factors in
general populations, occupational settings, smokers, or other high risk goups




NR 507 |Page

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