Nursing Pharmacology Final Exam:
Most Tested Drugs (2026 Edition)||
questions and answers with
rationales/graded A+/2026
update/100% correct /instant
download
Total Questions: 85
Format: Multiple Choice
Instructions: Select the best answer. Correct answers are highlighted in bold.
Rationales are provided.
Section 1: Cardiovascular Drugs (Antihypertensives & Heart Failure)
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse knows this
drug exerts its therapeutic effect by:
• A) Blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart
• B) Inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), reducing
vasoconstriction
• C) Blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle
• D) Increasing renal excretion of sodium and water
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. It prevents conversion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II, causing vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion.
2. Which adverse effect is most specific to amlodipine (a dihydropyridine
calcium channel blocker)?
• A) Peripheral edema
• B) Dry cough
, • C) Hyperkalemia
• D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Dihydropyridines (e.g., amlodipine) cause vasodilation leading to
reflex tachycardia and peripheral edema, not bradycardia (which is more common
with verapamil/diltiazem).
3. A patient on metoprolol has a heart rate of 52 bpm and reports dizziness.
The nurse should:
• A) Administer the dose as ordered
• B) Double the next dose to compensate
• C) Hold the dose and notify the provider
• D) Give the dose with orange juice
Rationale: Metoprolol (beta-blocker) can cause symptomatic bradycardia. HR <60
with symptoms requires withholding and provider notification.
4. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is prescribed. Which lab value requires
immediate intervention?
• A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
• B) Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C) Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
• D) Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Thiazides cause hypokalemia. Potassium <3.5 mEq/L increases risk of
dysrhythmias, especially with digoxin.
5. Furosemide (Lasix) administered IV push should be given no faster than:
• A) 10 mg/min
• B) 20-40 mg/min
• C) 50 mg/min
• D) 100 mg/min
Rationale: Rapid IV furosemide can cause ototoxicity. Max rate is 20-40 mg/min.
, Section 2: Anticoagulants & Antiplatelets
6. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. The nurse expects the provider to
order:
• A) Increase warfarin dose
• B) Protamine sulfate
• C) Vitamin K (phytonadione)
• D) Heparin infusion
Rationale: INR >4.5 without bleeding is managed with oral vitamin K. Protamine
is for heparin overdose.
7. Which medication requires monitoring of aPTT every 6 hours?
• A) Enoxaparin
• B) Unfractionated heparin
• C) Apixaban
• D) Clopidogrel
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin (IV) requires aPTT monitoring. LMWH
(enoxaparin) does not.
8. The antidote for direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran is:
• A) Protamine sulfate
• B) Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
• C) Andexanet alfa
• D) Phytonadione
Rationale: Idarucizumab is a monoclonal antibody fragment that reverses
dabigatran. Andexanet reverses apixaban/rivaroxaban.
9. A nurse teaches a patient taking clopidogrel (Plavix) to avoid:
• A) Green leafy vegetables
• B) Omeprazole (if possible)
Most Tested Drugs (2026 Edition)||
questions and answers with
rationales/graded A+/2026
update/100% correct /instant
download
Total Questions: 85
Format: Multiple Choice
Instructions: Select the best answer. Correct answers are highlighted in bold.
Rationales are provided.
Section 1: Cardiovascular Drugs (Antihypertensives & Heart Failure)
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse knows this
drug exerts its therapeutic effect by:
• A) Blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart
• B) Inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), reducing
vasoconstriction
• C) Blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle
• D) Increasing renal excretion of sodium and water
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. It prevents conversion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II, causing vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion.
2. Which adverse effect is most specific to amlodipine (a dihydropyridine
calcium channel blocker)?
• A) Peripheral edema
• B) Dry cough
, • C) Hyperkalemia
• D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Dihydropyridines (e.g., amlodipine) cause vasodilation leading to
reflex tachycardia and peripheral edema, not bradycardia (which is more common
with verapamil/diltiazem).
3. A patient on metoprolol has a heart rate of 52 bpm and reports dizziness.
The nurse should:
• A) Administer the dose as ordered
• B) Double the next dose to compensate
• C) Hold the dose and notify the provider
• D) Give the dose with orange juice
Rationale: Metoprolol (beta-blocker) can cause symptomatic bradycardia. HR <60
with symptoms requires withholding and provider notification.
4. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is prescribed. Which lab value requires
immediate intervention?
• A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
• B) Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C) Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
• D) Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Thiazides cause hypokalemia. Potassium <3.5 mEq/L increases risk of
dysrhythmias, especially with digoxin.
5. Furosemide (Lasix) administered IV push should be given no faster than:
• A) 10 mg/min
• B) 20-40 mg/min
• C) 50 mg/min
• D) 100 mg/min
Rationale: Rapid IV furosemide can cause ototoxicity. Max rate is 20-40 mg/min.
, Section 2: Anticoagulants & Antiplatelets
6. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. The nurse expects the provider to
order:
• A) Increase warfarin dose
• B) Protamine sulfate
• C) Vitamin K (phytonadione)
• D) Heparin infusion
Rationale: INR >4.5 without bleeding is managed with oral vitamin K. Protamine
is for heparin overdose.
7. Which medication requires monitoring of aPTT every 6 hours?
• A) Enoxaparin
• B) Unfractionated heparin
• C) Apixaban
• D) Clopidogrel
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin (IV) requires aPTT monitoring. LMWH
(enoxaparin) does not.
8. The antidote for direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran is:
• A) Protamine sulfate
• B) Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
• C) Andexanet alfa
• D) Phytonadione
Rationale: Idarucizumab is a monoclonal antibody fragment that reverses
dabigatran. Andexanet reverses apixaban/rivaroxaban.
9. A nurse teaches a patient taking clopidogrel (Plavix) to avoid:
• A) Green leafy vegetables
• B) Omeprazole (if possible)
