ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR 2026-Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN)
Examination||Questions And Answers
With Rationales/Graded A+/2026
Update/100% Correct /Instant
Download
Total Questions: 180
Time Limit: 180 Minutes
Format: Multiple Choice, Select All That Apply, Bow-Tie, Matrix/Grid, Drag and
Drop, Cloze (Drop-Down), and Enhanced Hot Spot.
Focus Areas: Management of Care, Safety, Health Promotion, Psychosocial
Integrity, Physiological Integrity (Pharmacology, Med-Surg, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Mental Health).
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE & SAFETY (Questions 1-45)
Prioritization, Delegation, Triage, Legal/Ethical, Infection Control
1. A nurse is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should
the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus requesting pain medication for neuropathic pain.
B. A client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum.
C. A client who is post-operative day 1 with new-onset confusion and a BP of
88/50 mm Hg.
D. A client with a fractured tibia requesting assistance to the bathroom.
Correct Answer: C. New-onset confusion combined with hypotension (88/50)
suggests potential sepsis, hemorrhage, or shock, indicating unstable status
requiring immediate priority assessment. Rationale: Prioritization follows Maslow
,and the "unstable vs. stable" framework. New confusion is a late sign of impending
deterioration (especially in older adults) and indicates decreased cerebral
perfusion. The patient is at high risk for cardiac or respiratory arrest. While the
other clients have needs (pain, infection, mobility), they are stable compared to the
client in shock .
2. Which task is appropriate for a nurse to delegate to an experienced
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)?
A. Feeding a client with dysphagia.
B. Checking a client’s morning blood glucose level.
C. Measuring intake and output for a stable client.
D. Applying a condom catheter to a client with confusion.
Correct Answer: C. Measuring Intake and Output (I&O) for a stable client is a
routine, non-invasive task within the UAP scope of practice. Rationale: The PN
must follow the "Five Rights of Delegation." UAPs can perform tasks with
predictable outcomes. Feeding a client with dysphagia requires aspiration
precautions and nurse assessment (A). Checking blood glucose requires training,
but is often allowed; however, "taking vitals" is more universally accepted; I&O is
the safest answer. Applying a condom catheter requires assessment of skin integrity
and glans condition; a confused client adds a layer of safety risk that requires
licensed judgment (D) .
3. A nurse suspects a child is being physically abused. Which action should the
nurse take FIRST?
A. Confront the parents about the suspicions.
B. Report the findings to the child’s school nurse.
C. Document findings objectively and report to Child Protective Services (CPS).
D. Ask the child directly if they are being abused.
Correct Answer: C. Nurses are mandated reporters. The legal duty is to report
suspicions immediately to the appropriate authorities (CPS) and document
objectively. Rationale: The nurse should not investigate (D) or confront the family
(A), as this could escalate danger. Documentation must be factual (e.g., "bruise
noted on back in shape of handprint") without interpretation. Reporting is a legal
obligation, not an option, to protect the child .
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a nasogastric tube feeding. Which action
should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Warm the formula to room temperature.
, B. Place the client in Fowler’s position.
C. Verify tube placement by aspirating gastric contents.
D. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
Correct Answer: C. Verification of tube placement is the priority to prevent
accidental administration into the lungs (aspiration). Rationale: "First" indicates
safety priority. Checking placement via pH testing (gastric pH <5) or aspirate
appearance prevents a fatal error of infusion into the lungs. Position (B) is
secondary to ensuring the tube is in the gut .
5. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) requires a sputum specimen. Which
type of precautions and PPE are required for room entry?
A. Contact precautions; gown and gloves.
B. Droplet precautions; surgical mask.
C. Airborne precautions; N95 respirator.
D. Standard precautions; face shield.
Correct Answer: C. TB requires Airborne Precautions and an N95
respirator (or PAPR). Rationale: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via
droplet nuclei that remain airborne. An N95 mask filters these particles. Surgical
masks (Droplet) are for influenza/meningitis. A gown (Contact) is for C. diff or
MRSA .
6. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture (LP). Following the procedure,
the nurse should place the client in which position?
A. Prone with legs flexed.
B. Semi-Fowler’s with head elevated.
C. Flat supine for 4 to 6 hours.
D. Trendelenburg.
Correct Answer: C. The client should lie flat (supine) for 4 to 6 hours post-
LP. Rationale: Lying flat helps maintain cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) pressure and
prevents leakage from the puncture site, reducing the risk of a post-dural puncture
headache (spinal headache) .
7. A nurse is caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant
(brachytherapy). Which action is appropriate?
A. Limit visitors to 30 minutes per day.
B. Cleanse equipment before removal from the room.
PREDICTOR 2026-Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN)
Examination||Questions And Answers
With Rationales/Graded A+/2026
Update/100% Correct /Instant
Download
Total Questions: 180
Time Limit: 180 Minutes
Format: Multiple Choice, Select All That Apply, Bow-Tie, Matrix/Grid, Drag and
Drop, Cloze (Drop-Down), and Enhanced Hot Spot.
Focus Areas: Management of Care, Safety, Health Promotion, Psychosocial
Integrity, Physiological Integrity (Pharmacology, Med-Surg, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Mental Health).
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE & SAFETY (Questions 1-45)
Prioritization, Delegation, Triage, Legal/Ethical, Infection Control
1. A nurse is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should
the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus requesting pain medication for neuropathic pain.
B. A client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum.
C. A client who is post-operative day 1 with new-onset confusion and a BP of
88/50 mm Hg.
D. A client with a fractured tibia requesting assistance to the bathroom.
Correct Answer: C. New-onset confusion combined with hypotension (88/50)
suggests potential sepsis, hemorrhage, or shock, indicating unstable status
requiring immediate priority assessment. Rationale: Prioritization follows Maslow
,and the "unstable vs. stable" framework. New confusion is a late sign of impending
deterioration (especially in older adults) and indicates decreased cerebral
perfusion. The patient is at high risk for cardiac or respiratory arrest. While the
other clients have needs (pain, infection, mobility), they are stable compared to the
client in shock .
2. Which task is appropriate for a nurse to delegate to an experienced
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)?
A. Feeding a client with dysphagia.
B. Checking a client’s morning blood glucose level.
C. Measuring intake and output for a stable client.
D. Applying a condom catheter to a client with confusion.
Correct Answer: C. Measuring Intake and Output (I&O) for a stable client is a
routine, non-invasive task within the UAP scope of practice. Rationale: The PN
must follow the "Five Rights of Delegation." UAPs can perform tasks with
predictable outcomes. Feeding a client with dysphagia requires aspiration
precautions and nurse assessment (A). Checking blood glucose requires training,
but is often allowed; however, "taking vitals" is more universally accepted; I&O is
the safest answer. Applying a condom catheter requires assessment of skin integrity
and glans condition; a confused client adds a layer of safety risk that requires
licensed judgment (D) .
3. A nurse suspects a child is being physically abused. Which action should the
nurse take FIRST?
A. Confront the parents about the suspicions.
B. Report the findings to the child’s school nurse.
C. Document findings objectively and report to Child Protective Services (CPS).
D. Ask the child directly if they are being abused.
Correct Answer: C. Nurses are mandated reporters. The legal duty is to report
suspicions immediately to the appropriate authorities (CPS) and document
objectively. Rationale: The nurse should not investigate (D) or confront the family
(A), as this could escalate danger. Documentation must be factual (e.g., "bruise
noted on back in shape of handprint") without interpretation. Reporting is a legal
obligation, not an option, to protect the child .
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a nasogastric tube feeding. Which action
should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Warm the formula to room temperature.
, B. Place the client in Fowler’s position.
C. Verify tube placement by aspirating gastric contents.
D. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
Correct Answer: C. Verification of tube placement is the priority to prevent
accidental administration into the lungs (aspiration). Rationale: "First" indicates
safety priority. Checking placement via pH testing (gastric pH <5) or aspirate
appearance prevents a fatal error of infusion into the lungs. Position (B) is
secondary to ensuring the tube is in the gut .
5. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) requires a sputum specimen. Which
type of precautions and PPE are required for room entry?
A. Contact precautions; gown and gloves.
B. Droplet precautions; surgical mask.
C. Airborne precautions; N95 respirator.
D. Standard precautions; face shield.
Correct Answer: C. TB requires Airborne Precautions and an N95
respirator (or PAPR). Rationale: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via
droplet nuclei that remain airborne. An N95 mask filters these particles. Surgical
masks (Droplet) are for influenza/meningitis. A gown (Contact) is for C. diff or
MRSA .
6. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture (LP). Following the procedure,
the nurse should place the client in which position?
A. Prone with legs flexed.
B. Semi-Fowler’s with head elevated.
C. Flat supine for 4 to 6 hours.
D. Trendelenburg.
Correct Answer: C. The client should lie flat (supine) for 4 to 6 hours post-
LP. Rationale: Lying flat helps maintain cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) pressure and
prevents leakage from the puncture site, reducing the risk of a post-dural puncture
headache (spinal headache) .
7. A nurse is caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant
(brachytherapy). Which action is appropriate?
A. Limit visitors to 30 minutes per day.
B. Cleanse equipment before removal from the room.
