ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR: INTENSIVE PREP
TEST (2026 UPDATE)||| Questions
And Answers With Rationales/Graded
A+/2026 Update/100% Correct
/Instant Download
Total Questions: 85
Time Limit: 180 minutes
Instructions: Choose the best answer. Questions marked with (SATA) indicate
Select All That Apply.
SECTION 1: SAFETY & INFECTION CONTROL (5 Questions)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which
type of precautions should the nurse implement?
• A. Contact Precautions
• B. Droplet Precautions
• C. Airborne Precautions
• D. Protective Environment
Rationale: Pulmonary TB is transmitted via droplet nuclei that remain airborne.
Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator and negative pressure room.
Contact is for C.diff/MRSA; Droplet is for flu/meningitis.
2. A nurse discovers a fire in a client's trash can. What is the priority action
using the RACE protocol?
• A. Rescue clients in immediate danger
, • B. Activate the fire alarm
• C. Contain the fire by closing doors
• D. Extinguish the fire with an extinguisher
Rationale: RACE = Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Client safety is always
first. After rescuing, then activate alarm, close doors, then use extinguisher.
3. (SATA) A client is placed in restraints. Which actions should the nurse
take? Select all that apply.
• A. Document the client's behavior leading to restraint use
• B. Obtain a written provider order within 4 hours for adults
• C. Tie restraints to the side rail for easy access
• D. Remove restraints every 2 hours for range of motion
• E. Offer fluids and toileting every 4 hours
Rationale: A & D correct. Restraints need order within 4h (1h for children).
Remove q2h for ROM/hygiene. C is wrong (tie to bed frame, not rail). E wrong
(offer q2h).
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. At which angle
should the nurse insert the needle?
• A. 5-degree angle
• B. 10- to 15-degree angle
• C. 45-degree angle
• D. 90-degree angle
Rationale: Intradermal injections (PPD, allergy tests) use a 5-15° angle, bevel up,
with a visible bleb. 90° is IM; 45° is subcut.
5. A client on contact precautions for C. diff asks a family member to bring
food. What instruction should the nurse give?
• A. "Family may bring food but must wear gloves."
• B. "Bring only disposable utensils and containers."
• C. "Anyone entering must wear an N95 mask."
, • D. "Food must be discarded outside the room."
Rationale: C. diff spores survive on surfaces. Disposable items prevent spread.
Alcohol gel is ineffective; hand washing with soap/water required.
SECTION 2: PHARMACOLOGICAL & PARENTERAL THERAPIES (10
Questions)
6. A nurse administers IV morphine 4 mg to a postoperative client. Fifteen
minutes later, the client has a respiratory rate of 8/min. What is the priority
nursing action?
• A. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• B. Place client in high-Fowler's position
• C. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Rationale: RR <10 indicates opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is
an opioid antagonist given IV push. Oxygen is secondary; airway/breathing first.
7. A client is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. Which finding
indicates toxicity?
• A. Heart rate of 72/min
• B. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
• C. Yellow-tinged vision (xanthopsia)
• D. Serum digoxin level 1.2 ng/mL
Rationale: Yellow/green halos, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and visual
disturbances are signs of digoxin toxicity. Normal dig level 0.8-2.0 ng/mL.
8. A nurse is teaching about enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which statement indicates
understanding?
• A. "I will take this pill with food each morning."
• B. "I will inject this medication into my abdomen."
• C. "I need to have my INR checked weekly."
PREDICTOR: INTENSIVE PREP
TEST (2026 UPDATE)||| Questions
And Answers With Rationales/Graded
A+/2026 Update/100% Correct
/Instant Download
Total Questions: 85
Time Limit: 180 minutes
Instructions: Choose the best answer. Questions marked with (SATA) indicate
Select All That Apply.
SECTION 1: SAFETY & INFECTION CONTROL (5 Questions)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which
type of precautions should the nurse implement?
• A. Contact Precautions
• B. Droplet Precautions
• C. Airborne Precautions
• D. Protective Environment
Rationale: Pulmonary TB is transmitted via droplet nuclei that remain airborne.
Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator and negative pressure room.
Contact is for C.diff/MRSA; Droplet is for flu/meningitis.
2. A nurse discovers a fire in a client's trash can. What is the priority action
using the RACE protocol?
• A. Rescue clients in immediate danger
, • B. Activate the fire alarm
• C. Contain the fire by closing doors
• D. Extinguish the fire with an extinguisher
Rationale: RACE = Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Client safety is always
first. After rescuing, then activate alarm, close doors, then use extinguisher.
3. (SATA) A client is placed in restraints. Which actions should the nurse
take? Select all that apply.
• A. Document the client's behavior leading to restraint use
• B. Obtain a written provider order within 4 hours for adults
• C. Tie restraints to the side rail for easy access
• D. Remove restraints every 2 hours for range of motion
• E. Offer fluids and toileting every 4 hours
Rationale: A & D correct. Restraints need order within 4h (1h for children).
Remove q2h for ROM/hygiene. C is wrong (tie to bed frame, not rail). E wrong
(offer q2h).
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. At which angle
should the nurse insert the needle?
• A. 5-degree angle
• B. 10- to 15-degree angle
• C. 45-degree angle
• D. 90-degree angle
Rationale: Intradermal injections (PPD, allergy tests) use a 5-15° angle, bevel up,
with a visible bleb. 90° is IM; 45° is subcut.
5. A client on contact precautions for C. diff asks a family member to bring
food. What instruction should the nurse give?
• A. "Family may bring food but must wear gloves."
• B. "Bring only disposable utensils and containers."
• C. "Anyone entering must wear an N95 mask."
, • D. "Food must be discarded outside the room."
Rationale: C. diff spores survive on surfaces. Disposable items prevent spread.
Alcohol gel is ineffective; hand washing with soap/water required.
SECTION 2: PHARMACOLOGICAL & PARENTERAL THERAPIES (10
Questions)
6. A nurse administers IV morphine 4 mg to a postoperative client. Fifteen
minutes later, the client has a respiratory rate of 8/min. What is the priority
nursing action?
• A. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• B. Place client in high-Fowler's position
• C. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Rationale: RR <10 indicates opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is
an opioid antagonist given IV push. Oxygen is secondary; airway/breathing first.
7. A client is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. Which finding
indicates toxicity?
• A. Heart rate of 72/min
• B. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
• C. Yellow-tinged vision (xanthopsia)
• D. Serum digoxin level 1.2 ng/mL
Rationale: Yellow/green halos, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and visual
disturbances are signs of digoxin toxicity. Normal dig level 0.8-2.0 ng/mL.
8. A nurse is teaching about enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which statement indicates
understanding?
• A. "I will take this pill with food each morning."
• B. "I will inject this medication into my abdomen."
• C. "I need to have my INR checked weekly."
