NSG 3800/ NSG3800 Exam 2 – Adult Health II | 2026/2027 Update | Galen | Latest Questions & Verified Answers

NSG 3800/ NSG3800 Exam 2 – Adult Health II | 2026/2027 Update | Galen | Latest Questions & Verified Answers A patient is having her tonsils removed. The patient asks the nurse what function the tonsils normally serve. Which of the following would be the most accurate response? A) The tonsils separate your windpipe from your throat when you swallow. B) The tonsils help to guard the body from invasion of organisms. C) The tonsils make enzymes that you swallow and which aid with digestion. D) The tonsils help with regulating the airflow down into your lungs. B Feedback: The tonsils, the adenoids, and other lymphoid tissue encircle the throat. These structures are important links in the chain of lymph nodes guarding the body from invasion of organisms entering the nose and throat. The tonsils do not aid digestion, separate the trachea from the esophagus, or regulate airflow to the bronchi. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the unit after a colon resection. The patient is showing signs of hypoxia. The nurse knows that this is probably caused by what? A) Nitrogen narcosis B) Infection C) Impaired diffusion D) Shunting D Feedback: Shunting appears to be the main cause of hypoxia after thoracic or abdominal surgery and most types of respiratory failure. Impairment of normal diffusion is a less common cause. Infection would not likely be present at this early stage of recovery and nitrogen narcosis only occurs from breathing compressed air. The nurse is assessing a patient who frequently coughs after eating or drinking. How should the nurse best follow up this assessment finding? A) Obtain a sputum sample. B) Perform a swallowing assessment. C) Inspect the patients tongue and mouth. D) Assess the patients nutritional status. B Feedback: Coughing after food intake may indicate aspiration of material into the tracheobronchial tree; a swallowing assessment is thus indicated. Obtaining a sputum sample is relevant in cases of suspected infection. The status of the patients tongue, mouth, and nutrition is not directly relevant to the problem of aspiration. The ED nurse is assessing a patient complaining of dyspnea. The nurse auscultates the patients chest and hears wheezing throughout the lung fields. What might this indicate? A) The patient has a narrowed airway. B) The patient has pneumonia. C) The patient needs physiotherapy. D) The patient has a hemothorax. A Feedback: Wheezing is a high-pitched, musical sound that is often the major finding in a patient with bronchoconstriction or airway narrowing. Wheezing is not normally indicative of pneumonia or hemothorax. Wheezing does not indicate the need for physiotherapy. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. During assessment, the nurse finds that the patient is experiencing increased dyspnea. What is the most accurate measurement of the concentration of oxygen in the patients blood? A) A capillary blood sample B) Pulse oximetry C) An arterial blood gas (ABG) study D) A complete blood count (CBC) C Feedback: The arterial oxygen tension (partial pressure or PaO2) indicates the degree of oxygenation of the blood, and the arterial carbon dioxide tension (partial pressure or PaCO2) indicates the adequacy of alveolar ventilation. ABG studies aid in assessing the ability of the lungs to provide adequate oxygen and remove carbon dioxide and the ability of the kidneys to reabsorb or excrete bicarbonate ions to maintain normal body pH. Capillary blood samples are venous blood, not arterial blood, so they are not as accurate as an ABG. Pulse oximetry is a useful clinical tool but does not replace ABG measurement, because it is not as accurate. A CBC does not indicate the concentration of oxygen. The nurse is caring for a patient who has returned to the unit following a bronchoscopy. The patient is asking for something to drink. Which criterion will determine when the nurse should allow the patient to drink fluids? A)Presence of a cough and gag reflex B)Absence of nausea C) Ability to demonstrate deep inspiration D) Oxygen saturation of 92% A Feedback: After the procedure, it is important that the patient takes nothing by mouth until the cough reflex returns because the preoperative sedation and local anesthesia impair the protective laryngeal reflex and swallowing for several hours. Deep inspiration, adequate oxygen saturation levels, and absence of nausea do not indicate that oral intake is safe from the risk of aspiration. A patient with chronic lung disease is undergoing lung function testing. What test result denotes the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath? A)Total lung capacity B) Forced vital capacity C) Tidal volume D) Residual volume C Feedback: Tidal volume refers to the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath. Total lung capacity is the maximal amount of air the lungs and respiratory passages can hold after a forced inspiration. Forced vital capacity is vital capacity performed with a maximally forced expiration. Residual volume is the maximal amount of air left in the lung after a maximal expiration. In addition to heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature, the nurse needs to assess a patients arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2). What procedure will best accomplish this? A) Incentive spirometry B) Arterial blood gas (ABG) measurement C) Peak flow measurement D) Pulse oximetry D Feedback: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive procedure in which a small sensor is positioned over a pulsating vascular bed. It can be used during transport and causes the patient no discomfort. An incentive spirometer is used to assist the patient with deep breathing after surgery. ABG measurement can measure SaO2, but this is an invasive procedure that can be painful. Some patients with asthma use peak flow meters to measure levels of expired air. A patient asks the nurse why an infection in his upper respiratory system is affecting the clarity of his speech. Which structure serves as the patients resonating chamber in speech? A) Trachea B) Pharynx C) Paranasal sinuses D) Larynx C Feedback: A prominent function of the sinuses is to serve as a resonating chamber in speech. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, serves as the passage between the larynx and the bronchi. The pharynx is a tubelike structure that connects the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx. The pharynx also functions as a passage for the respiratory and digestive tracts. The major function of the larynx is vocalization through the function of the vocal cords. The vocal cords are ligaments controlled by muscular movements that produce sound. 10. A patient with a decreased level of consciousness is in a recumbent position. How should the nurse best assess the lung fields for a patient in this position? A) Inform that physician that the patient is in a recumbent position and anticipate an order for a portable chest x-ray. B) Turn the patient to enable assessment of all the patients lung fields. C) Avoid turning the patient, and assess the accessible breath sounds from the anterior chest wall. D) Obtain a pulse oximetry reading, and, if the reading is low, reposition the patient and auscultate breath sounds. B Feedback: Assessment of the anterior and posterior lung fields is part of the nurses routine evaluation. If the patient is recumbent, it is essential to turn the patient to assess all lung fields so that dependent areas can be assessed for breath sounds, including the presence of normal breath sounds and adventitious sounds. Failure to examine the dependent areas of the lungs can result in missing significant findings. This makes the other given options unacceptable. A patient is undergoing testing to see if he has a pleural effusion. Which of the nurses respiratory assessment findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and a dull sound upon percussion of the chest wall B) Decreased tactile fremitus, wheezing, and a hyperresonant sound upon percussion of the chest wall C) Lung fields dull to percussion, absent breath sounds, and a pleural friction rub D) Normal tactile fremitus, decreased breath sounds, and a resonant sound upon percussion of the chest wall C Feedback: Assessment findings consistent with a pleural effusion include affected lung fields being dull to percussion and absence of breath sounds. A pleural friction rub may also be present. The other listed signs are not typically associated with a pleural effusion. The nurse doing rounds at the beginning of a shift notices a sputum specimen in a container sitting on the bedside table in a patients room. The nurse asks the patient when he produced the sputum specimen and he states that the specimen is about 4 hours old. What action should the nurse take? A) Immediately take the sputum specimen to the laboratory. B) Discard the specimen and assist the patient in obtaining another specimen. C) Refrigerate the sputum specimen and submit it once it is chilled. D) Add a small amount of normal saline to moisten the specimen. B feedback:Sputum samples should be submitted to the laboratory as soon as possible. Allowing the specimen to stand for several hours in a warm room results in the overgrowth of contaminated organisms and may make it difficult to identify the pathogenic organisms. Refrigeration of the sputum specimen and the addition of normal saline are not appropriate actions. The nurse is assessing a newly admitted medical patient and notes there is a depression in the lower portion of the patients sternum. This patients health record should note the presence of what chest deformity? A) A barrel chest B) A funnel chest C) A pigeon chest D) Kyphoscoliosis B Feedback: A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum, and this may lead to compression of the heart and great vessels, resulting in murmurs. A barrel chest is characterized by an increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the thorax and is a result of overinflation of the lungs. A pigeon chest occurs as a result of displacement of the sternum and includes an increase in the anteroposterior diameter. Kyphoscoliosis, which is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine, limits lung expansion within the thorax. The medical nurse who works on a pulmonology unit is aware that several respiratory conditions can affect lung tissue compliance. The presence of what condition would lead to an increase in lung compliance? A) Emphysema B) Pulmonary fibrosis C) Pleural effusion D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) A Feedback: High or increased compliance occurs if the lungs have lost their elasticity and the thorax is overdistended, in conditions such as emphysema. Conditions associated with decreased compliance include pneumothorax, hemothorax, pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, atelectasis, pulmonary fibrosis, and ARDS. A medical nurse has admitted a patient to the unit with a diagnosis of failure to thrive. The patient has developed a fever and cough, so a sputum specimen has been obtained. The nurse notes that the sputum is greenish and that there is a large quantity of it. The nurse notifies the patients physician because these symptoms are suggestive of what? A) Pneumothorax B) Lung tumors C) Infection D) Pulmonary edema C Feedback: The nature of the sputum is often indicative of its cause. A profuse amount of purulent sputum (thick and yellow, green, or rust-colored) or a change in color of the sputum is a common sign of a bacterial infection. Pink-tinged mucoid sputum suggests a lung tumor. Profuse, frothy, pink material, often welling up into the throat, may indicate pulmonary edema. A pneumothorax does not result in copious, green sputum. A patient has been diagnosed with heart failure that has not yet responded to treatment. What breath sound should the nurse expect to assess on auscultation? A) Expiratory wheezes B) Inspiratory wheezes C) Rhonchi D) Crackles D Feedback: Crackles reflect underlying inflammation or congestion and are often present in such conditions as pneumonia, bronchitis, and congestive heart failure. Rhonchi and wheezes are associated with airway obstruction, which is not a part of the pathophysiology of heart failure. A patient has a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. The nurse is aware that neuromuscular disorders such as multiple sclerosis may lead to a decreased vital capacity. What does vital capacity measure? A) The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath B) The volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration C) The maximal volume of air inhaled after normal expiration D) The maximal volume of air exhaled from the point of maximal inspiration D Feedback: Vital capacity is measured by having the patient take in a maximal breath and exhale fully through a spirometer. Vital lung capacity is the maximal volume of air exhaled from the point of maximal inspiration, and neuromuscular disorders such as multiple sclerosis may lead to a decreased vital capacity. Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath. The volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration is the total lung capacity. Inspiratory capacity is the maximal volume of air inhaled after normal expiration. While assessing an acutely ill patients respiratory rate, the nurse assesses four normal breaths followed by an episode of apnea lasting 20 seconds. How should the nurse document this finding? A) Eupnea B) Apnea C) Biors respiration D) Cheyne-Stokes C Feedback: The nurse will document that the patient is demonstrating a Biots respiration pattern. Biots respiration is characterized by periods of normal breathing (three to four breaths) followed by varying periods of apnea (usually 10 seconds to 1 minute). Cheyne Stokes is a similar respiratory pattern, but it involves a regular cycle where the rate and depth of breathing increase and then decrease until apnea occurs. Biots respiration is not characterized by the increase and decrease in the rate and depth, as characterized by Cheyne-Stokes. Eupnea is a normal breathing pattern of 12 to 18 breaths per minute. Bradypnea is a slower-than-normal rate (10 breaths per minute), with normal depth and regular rhythm, and no apnea. The nurse is caring for an elderly patient in the PACU. The patient has had a bronchoscopy, and the nurse is monitoring for complications related to the administration of lidocaine. For what complication related to the administration of large doses of lidocaine in the elderly should the nurse assess? A) Decreased urine output and hypertension B) Headache and vision changes C) Confusion and lethargy D) Jaundice and elevated liver enzymes C Feedback: ApneaBiots respiration Cheyne-Stokes C Feedback: The nurse will document that the patient is demonstrating a Biots respiration pattern. Biots respiration is characterized by periods of normal breathing (three to four breaths) followed by varying periods of apnea (usually 10 seconds to 1 minute). Cheyne-Stokes is a similar respiratory pattern, but it involves a regular cycle where the rate and depth of breathing increase and then decrease until apnea occurs. Biots respiration is not characterized by the increase and decrease in the rate and depth, as characterized by Cheyne-Stokes. Eupnea is a normal breathing pattern of 12 to 18 breaths per minute. Bradypnea is a slower-than-normal rate (10 breaths per minute), with normal depth and regular rhythm, and no apnea. The nurse is caring for an elderly patient in the PACU. The patient has had a bronchoscopy, and the nurse is monitoring for complications related to the administration of lidocaine. For what complication related to the administration of large doses of lidocaine in the elderly should the nurse assess? Decreased urine output and hypertension Headache and vision changesConfusion and lethargyJaundice and elevated liver enzymes C Feedback: Lidocaine may be sprayed on the pharynx or dropped on the epiglottis and vocal cords and into the trachea to suppress the cough reflex and minimize discomfort during a bronchoscopy. After the procedure, the nurse will assess for confusion and lethargy in the elderly, which may be due to the large doses of lidocaine administered during the procedure. The other listed signs and symptoms are not specific to this problem. While assessing a patient who has pneumonia, the nurse has the patient repeat the letter E while the nurses auscultates. The nurse notes that the patients voice sounds are distorted and that the letter A is audible instead of the letter E. How should this finding be documented? A)Bronchophony B)Egophony C) Whispered pectoriloquy D) Sonorous wheezes B Feedback: This finding would be documented as egophony, which can be best assessed by instructing the patient to repeat the letter E. The distortion produced by consolidation transforms the sound into a clearly heard A rather than E. Bronchophony describes vocal resonance that is more intense and clearer than normal. Whispered pectoriloquy is a very subtle finding that is heard only in the presence of rather dense consolidation of the lungs. Sound is so enhanced by the consolidated tissue that even whispered words are heard. Sonorous wheezes are not defined as a voice sound, but rather as a breath sound. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with emphysema and who has just had a pulmonary function test (PFT) ordered. The patient asks, What exactly is this test for? What would be the nurses best response? A) A PFT measures how much air moves in and out of your lungs when you breathe. B) A PFT measures how much energy you get from the oxygen you breathe. C) A PFT measures how elastic your lungs are. D) A PFT measures whether oxygen and carbon dioxide move between your lungs and your blood. A Feedback: PFTs are routinely used in patients with chronic respiratory disorders. They are performed to assess respiratory function and to determine the extent of dysfunction. Such tests include measurements of lung volumes, ventilatory function, and the mechanics of breathing, diffusion, and gas exchange. Lung elasticity and diffusion can often be implied from PFTs, but they are not directly assessed. Energy obtained from respiration is not measured directly. A patient is being treated for a pulmonary embolism and the medical nurse is aware that the patient suffered an acute disturbance in pulmonary perfusion. This involved an alteration in what aspect of normal physiology? A) Maintenance of constant osmotic pressure in the alveoli B) Maintenance of muscle tone in the diaphragm C) pH balance in the pulmonary veins and arteries D) Adequate flow of blood through the pulmonary circulation. D feedback: Pulmonary perfusion is the actual blood flow through the pulmonary circulation. Perfusion is not defined in terms of pH balance, muscle tone, or osmotic pressure. The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment of an adult patient and is attempting to distinguish between vesicular, bronchovesicular, and bronchial (tubular) breath sounds. The nurse should distinguish between these normal breath sounds on what basis? A) Their location over a specific area of the lung B) The volume of the sounds C) Whether they are heard on inspiration or expiration D) Whether or not they are continuous breath sounds A Feedback: Normal breath sounds are distinguished by their location over a specific area of the lung; they are identified as vesicular, bronchovesicular, and bronchial (tubular) breath sounds. Normal breath sounds are heard on both inspiration and expiration, and are continuous. They are not distinguished solely on the basis of volume. A patient has been diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension, in which the capillaries in the alveoli are squeezed excessively. The nurse should recognize a disturbance in what aspect of normal respiratory function? A) Acidbase balance B) Perfusion C) Diffusion D) V entilation B Feedback: Perfusion is influenced by alveolar pressure. The pulmonary capillaries are sandwiched between adjacent alveoli and, if the alveolar pressure is sufficiently high, the capillaries are squeezed. This does not constitute a disturbance in ventilation (air movement), diffusion (gas exchange), or acidbase balance. A patient is scheduled to have excess pleural fluid aspirated with a needle in order to relieve her dyspnea. The patient inquires about the normal function of pleural fluid. What should the nurse describe? A) It allows for full expansion of the lungs within the thoracic cavity. B) It prevents the lungs from collapsing within the thoracic cavity. C) It limits lung expansion within the thoracic cavity. D) It lubricates the movement of the thorax and lungs. D Feedback: The visceral pleura cover the lungs; the parietal pleura line the thorax. The visceral and parietal pleura and the small amount of pleural fluid between these two membranes serve to lubricate the thorax and lungs and permit smooth motion of the lungs within the thoracic cavity with each breath. The pleura do not allow full expansion of the lungs, prevent the lungs from collapsing, or limit lung expansion within the thoracic cavity. The nurse is caring for a patient with a lower respiratory tract infection. When planning a focused respiratory assessment, the nurse should know that this type of infection most often causes what? A) Impaired gas exchange B) Collapsed bronchial structures C) Necrosis of the alveoli D) Closed bronchial tree A Feedback: The lower respiratory tract consists of the lungs, which contain the bronchial and alveolar structures needed for gas exchange. A lower respiratory tract infection does not collapse bronchial structures or close the bronchial tree. An infection does not cause necrosis of lung tissues. The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment of a patient who has been experiencing episodes of hypoxia. The nurse is aware that this is ultimately attributable to impaired gas exchange. On what factor does adequate gas exchange primarily depend? A) An appropriate perfusiondiffusion ratio B) An adequate ventilationperfusion ratio C) Adequate diffusion of gas in shunted blood D) Appropriate blood nitrogen concentration B Feedback: Adequate gas exchange depends on an adequate ventilationperfusion ratio. There is no perfusiondiffusion ratio. Adequate gas exchange does not depend on the diffusion of gas in shunted blood or a particular concentration of nitrogen. The nurse is caring for a patient with lung metastases who just underwent a mediastinotomy. What should be the focus of the nurses postprocedure care? A) Assisting with pulmonary function testing (PFT) B) Maintaining the patients chest tube C) Administering oral suction as needed D) Performing chest physiotherapy B Feedback: Chest tube drainage is required after mediastinotomy. PFT, chest physiotherapy, and oral suctioning would all be contraindicated because of the patients unstable health status. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a pleural effusion and who underwent a thoracoscopic procedure earlier in the morning. The nurse should prioritize assessment for which of the following? A) Sputum production B) Shortness of breath C) Throat discomfort D) Epistaxis B Feedback: Follow-up care in the health care facility and at home involves monitoring the patient for shortness of breath (which might indicate a pneumothorax). All of the listed options are relevant assessment findings, but shortness of breath is the most serious complication. A gerontologic nurse is analyzing the data from a patients focused respiratory assessment. The nurse is aware that the amount of respiratory dead space increases with age. What is the effect of this physiological change? A) Increased diffusion of gases B) Decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen C) Decreased shunting of blood D) Increased ventilation B Feedback: The amount of respiratory dead space increases with age. Combined with other changes, this results in a decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen with increasing age, producing lower oxygen levels in the arterial circulation. Decreased shunting and increased ventilation do not occur with age. The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a patient who is experiencing an exacerbation of her emphysema symptoms. When preparing to auscultate, what breath sounds should the nurse anticipate? A) Absence of breath sounds B) Wheezing with discontinuous breath sounds C) Faint breath sounds with prolonged expiration D) Faint breath sounds with fine crackles C Feedback: The breath sounds of the patient with emphysema are faint or often completely inaudible. When they are heard, the expiratory phase is prolonged. The patient has just had an MRI ordered because a routine chest x-ray showed suspicious areas in the right lung. The physician suspects bronchogenic carcinoma. An MRI would most likely be order to assess for what in this patient? A) Alveolar dysfunction B) Forced vital capacity C) Tidal volume D) Chest wall invasion D Feedback: MRI is used to characterize pulmonary nodules; to help stage bronchogenic carcinoma (assessment of chest wall invasion); and to evaluate inflammatory activity in interstitial lung disease, acute pulmonary embolism, and chronic thrombolytic pulmonary hypertension. Imaging would not focus on the alveoli since the problem in the bronchi. A static image such as MRI cannot inform PFT. A sputum study has been ordered for a patient who has developed coarse chest crackles and a fever. At what time should the nurse best collect the sample? A) Immediately after a meal B) First thing in the morning C) At bedtime D) After a period of exercise B Feedback: Sputum samples ideally are obtained early in the morning before the patient has had anything to eat or drink. The ED nurse is assessing the respiratory function of a teenage girl who presented with acute shortness of breath. Auscultation reveals continuous wheezes during inspiration and expiration. This finding is most suggestive what? A) Pleurisy B) Emphysema C) Asthma D) Pneumonia C Feedback: Sibilant wheezes are commonly associated with asthma. They do not normally accompany pleurisy, emphysema, or pneumonia. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been scheduled for a bronchoscopy. How should the nurse prepare the patient for this procedure? A) Administer a bolus of IV fluids. B) Arrange for the insertion of a peripherally inserted central catheter. C) Administer nebulized bronchodilators every 2 hours until the test. D) Withhold food and fluids for several hours before the test. D Feedback: Food and fluids are withheld for 4 to 8 hours before the test to reduce the risk of aspiration when the cough reflex is blocked by anesthesia. IV fluids, bronchodilators, and a central line are unnecessary. A nurse educator is reviewing the implications of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve with regard to the case of a current patient. The patient currently has normal hemoglobin levels, but significantly decreased SaO2 and PaO2 levels. What is an implication of this physiological state? A) The patients tissue demands may be met, but she will be unable to respond to physiological stressors. B) The patients short-term oxygen needs will be met, but she will be unable to expel sufficient CO2. C) The patient will experience tissue hypoxia with no sensation of shortness of breath or labored breathing. D) The patient will experience respiratory alkalosis with no ability to compensate. A Feedback: With a normal hemoglobin level of 15 mg/dL and a PaO2 level of 40 mm Hg (SaO2 75%), there is adequate oxygen available for the tissues, but no reserve for physiological stresses that increase tissue oxygen demand. If a serious incident occurs (e.g., bronchospasm, aspiration, hypotension, or cardiac dysrhythmias) that reduces the intake of oxygen from the lungs, tissue hypoxia results. A medical patient rings her call bell and expresses alarm to the nurse, stating, Ive just coughed up this blood. That cant be good, can it? How can the nurse best determine whether the source of the blood was the patients lungs? A) Obtain a sample and test the pH of the blood, if possible. B) Try to see if the blood is frothy or mixed with mucus. C) Perform oral suctioning to see if blood is obtained. D) Swab the back of the patients throat to see if blood is present. B Feedback: Though not definitive, blood from the lung is usually bright red, frothy, and mixed with sputum. Testing the pH of nonarterial blood samples is not common practice and would not provide important data. Similarly, oral suctioning and swabbing the patients mouth would not reveal the source. The nurse is completing a patients health history with regard to potential risk factors for lung disease. What interview question addresses the most significant risk factor for respiratory diseases? A) Have you ever been employed in a factory, smelter, or mill? B) Does anyone in your family have any form of lung disease? C) Do you currently smoke, or have you ever smoked? D) Have you ever lived in an area that has high levels of air pollution? C Feedback: Smoking the single most important contributor to lung disease, exceeds the significance of environmental, occupational, and genetic factors. A patient on the medical unit has told the nurse that he is experiencing significant dyspnea, despite that he has not recently performed any physical activity. What assessment question should the nurse ask the patient while preparing to perform a physical assessment? A) On a scale from 1 to 10, how bad would rate your shortness of breath? B) When was the last time you ate or drank anything? C) Are you feeling any nausea along with your shortness of breath? D) Do you think that some medication might help you catch your breath? A Feedback: Gauging the severity of the patients dyspnea is an important part of the nursing process. Oral intake and nausea are much less important considerations. The nurse must perform assessment prior to interventions such as providing medication. The nurse has assessed a patients family history for three generations. The presence of which respiratory disease would justify this type of assessment? A) Asthma B) Obstructive sleep apnea C) Community-acquired pneumonia D) Pulmonary edema A Feedback: Asthma is a respiratory illness that has genetic factors. Sleep apnea, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema lack genetic risk factors. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident and the care team suspects that the patient has developed pleurisy. Which of the nurses assessment findings would best corroborate this diagnosis? A) The patient is experiencing painless hemoptysis. B) The patients arterial blood gases (ABGs) are normal, but he demonstrates increased work of breathing. C) The patients oxygen saturation level is below 88%, but he denies shortness of breath. D) The patients pain intensifies when he coughs or takes a deep breath. D feedback: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. The patients ABGs would most likely be abnormal and shortness of breath would be expected. The nurse caring for a patient recently diagnosed with lung disease encourages the patient not to smoke. What is the primary rationale behind this nursing action? A) Smoking decreases the amount of mucus production. B) Smoke particles compete for binding sites on hemoglobin. C) Smoking causes atrophy of the alveoli D) Smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism D Feedback: In addition to irritating the mucous cells of the bronchi and inhibiting the function of alveolar macrophage (scavenger) cells, smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism of the respiratory tract. Smoking also increases the amount of mucus production and distends the alveoli in the lungs. It reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin, but not by directly competing for binding sites. The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a lobectomy for a diagnosis of lung cancer. While assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion, the nurse notes the clients oxygen saturation rapidly dropping. The patient complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects a pneumothorax has developed. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include what? A) Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side B) Paradoxical chest wall movement with respirations C) Sudden loss of consciousness D) Muffled heart sounds A Feedback: In the case of a simple pneumothorax, auscultating the breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Sudden loss of consciousness does not typically occur. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in pericardial tamponade. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who developed a pulmonary embolism after total knee surgery. The patient has been converted from heparin to sodium warfarin (Coumadin) anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse teach the client? A) Coumadin will continue to break up the clot over a period of weeks B) Coumadin must be taken concurrent with ASA to achieve anticoagulation. C) Anticoagulant therapy usually lasts between 3 and 6 months. D) He should take a vitamin supplement containing vitamin K C Feedback: Anticoagulant therapy prevents further clot formation, but cannot be used to dissolve a clot. The therapy continues for approximately 3 to 6 months and is not combined with ASA. Vitamin K reverses the effect of anticoagulant therapy and normally should not be taken. A new employee asks the occupational health nurse about measures to prevent inhalation exposure of the substances. Which statement by the nurse will decrease the patients exposure risk to toxic substances? A) Position a fan blowing on the toxic substances to prevent the substance from becoming stagnant in the air. B) Wear protective attire and devices when working with a toxic substance. C) Make sure that you keep your immunizations up to date to prevent respiratory diseases resulting from toxins. D) Always wear a disposable paper face mask when you are working with inhalable toxins. B Feedback: When working with toxic substances, the employee must wear or use protective devices such as face masks, hoods, or industrial respirators. Immunizations do not confer protection from toxins and a paper mask is normally insufficient protection. Never position a fan directly blowing on the toxic substance as it will disperse the fumes throughout the area. An x-ray of a trauma patient reveals rib fractures and the patient is diagnosed with a small flail chest injury. Which intervention should the nurse include in the patients plan of care? A) Suction the patients airway secretions. B) Immobilize the ribs with an abdominal binder. C) Prepare the patient for surgery. D) Immediately sedate and intubate the patient. A Feedback: As with rib fracture, treatment of flail chest is usually supportive. Management includes clearing secretions from the lungs, and controlling pain. If only a small segment of the chest is involved, it is important to clear the airway through positioning, coughing, deep breathing, and suctioning. Intubation is required for severe flail chest injuries, and surgery is required only in rare circumstances to stabilize the flail segment. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. How should the nurse best assess whether the patient is hypoxemic? A) Assess the patients level of consciousness (LOC). B) Assess the patients extremities for signs of cyanosis. C) Assess the patients oxygen saturation level. D) Review the patients hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels. C Feedback:The effectiveness of the patients oxygen therapy is assessed by the ABG analysis or pulse oximetry. ABG results may not be readily available. Presence or absence of cyanosis is not an accurate indicator of oxygen effectiveness. The patients LOC may be affected by hypoxia, but not every change in LOC is related to oxygenation. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels do not directly reflect current oxygenation status. An adult patient has tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). While providing patient teaching, what information should the nurse prioritize? A) The importance of adhering closely to the prescribed medication regimen B) The fact that the disease is a lifelong, chronic condition that will affect ADLs C) The fact that TB is self-limiting, but can take up to 2 years to resolve D) The need to work closely with the occupational and physical therapists A Feedback: Successful treatment of TB is highly dependent on careful adherence to the medication regimen. The disease is not self-limiting; occupational and physical therapy are not necessarily indicated. TB is curable. The nurse is assessing an adult patient following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes that the patient has an increased use of accessory muscles and is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what condition? A) Pneumothorax B) Anxiety C) Acute bronchitis D) Aspiration A Feedback: If the pneumothorax is large and the lung collapses totally, acute respiratory distress occurs. The patient is anxious, has dyspnea and air hunger, has increased use of the accessory muscles, and may develop central cyanosis from severe hypoxemia. These symptoms are not definitive of pneumothorax, but because of the patients recent trauma they are inconsistent with anxiety, bronchitis, or aspiration. The nurse at a long-term care facility is assessing each of the residents. Which resident most likely faces the greatest risk for aspiration? A) A resident who suffered a severe stroke several weeks ago B) A resident with mid-stage Alzheimers disease C) A 92-year-old resident who needs extensive help with ADLs D) A resident with severe and deforming rheumatoid arthritis A Feedback: Aspiration may occur if the patient cannot adequately coordinate protective glottic, laryngeal, and cough reflexes. These reflexes are often affected by stroke. A patient with mid-stage Alzheimers disease does not likely have the voluntary muscle problems that occur later in the disease. Clients that need help with ADLs or have severe arthritis should not have difficulty swallowing unless it exists secondary to another problem. The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the patient. What is an example of a first line measure to minimize atelectasis? A) Incentive spirometry B) Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) C) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) D) Bronchoscopy A Feedback: Strategies to prevent atelectasis, which include frequent turning, early ambulation, lung-volume expansion maneuvers (deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry), and coughing, serve as the first- line measures to minimize or treat atelectasis by improving ventilation. In patients who do not respond to first-line measures or who cannot perform deep-breathing exercises, other treatments such as positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), continuous or intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB), or bronchoscopy may be used. While planning a patients care, the nurse identifies nursing actions to minimize the patients pleuritic pain. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Avoid actions that will cause the patient to breathe deeply B) Ambulate the patient at least 3x daily C) Arrange for a soft-textured diet and increase fluid intake D) Encourage the patient to speak as little as possible A Feedback: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. A soft diet is not necessarily indicated and there is no need for the patient to avoid speaking. Ambulation has multiple benefits, but pain management is not among them. The perioperative nurse is writing a care plan for a patient who has returned from surgery 2 hours prior. Which measure should the nurse implement to most decrease the patients risk of developing pulmonary emboli (PE)? A) Early ambulation B) Increased dietary intake of protein C) Maintaining the patient in a supine position D) Administering aspirin with warfarin A Feedback: For patients at risk for PE, the most effective approach for prevention is to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Active leg exercises to avoid venous stasis, early ambulation, and use of elastic compression stocking are general preventive measures. The patient does not require increased dietary intake of protein directly related to prevention of PE, although it will assist in wound healing during the postoperative period. The patient should not be maintained in one position, but frequently repositioned, unless contraindicated by the surgical procedure. Aspirin should never be administered with warfarin because it will increase the patients risk for bleeding. The school nurse is presenting a class on smoking cessation at the local high school. A participant in the class asks the nurse about the risk of lung cancer in those who smoke. What response related to risk for lung cancer in smokers is most accurate? A) The younger you are when you start smoking, the higher your risk of lung cancer. B) The risk for lung cancer never decreases once you have smoked, which is why smokers need annual chest x-rays. C) ) The risk for lung cancer is determined mostly by what type of cigarettes you smoke. D) The risk for lung cancer depends primarily on the other risk factors for cancer that you have. A feedback: Risk is determined by the pack-year history (number of packs of cigarettes used each day, multiplied by the number of years smoked), the age of initiation of smoking, the depth of inhalation, and the tar and nicotine levels in the cigarettes smoked. The younger a person is when he or she starts smoking, the greater the risk of developing lung cancer. Risk declines after smoking cessation. The type of cigarettes is a significant variable, but this is not the most important factor. A hospital has been the site of an increased incidence of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). What is an important measure for the prevention of HAP? A) Administration of prophylactic antibiotics B) Administration of pneumococcal vaccine to vulnerable individuals C) Obtaining culture and sensitivity swabs from all newly admitted patients D) Administration of antiretroviral medications to patients over age 65 B Feedback: Pneumococcal vaccination reduces the incidence of pneumonia, hospitalizations for cardiac conditions, and deaths in the general older adult population. A onetime vaccination of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV) is recommended for all patients 65 years of age or older and those with chronic diseases. Antibiotics are not given on a preventative basis and antiretroviral medications do not affect the most common causative microorganisms. Culture and sensitivity testing by swabbing is not performed for pneumonia since the microorganisms are found in sputum. The nurse is assessing a patient who has a 35 pack-year history of cigarette smoking. In light of this known risk factor for lung cancer, what statement should prompt the nurse to refer the patient for further assessment? A) Lately, I have had this cough that just never seems to go away. B) I find that I dont have nearly the stamina that I used to. C) I seem to get nearly every cold and flu that goes around my workplace. D) I never used to have any allergies, but now I think I'm developing allergie to dust and pet hair A Feedback: The most frequent symptom of lung cancer is cough or change in a chronic cough. People frequently ignore this symptom and attribute it to smoking or a respiratory infection. A new onset of allergies, frequent respiratory infections and fatigue are not characteristic early signs of lung cancer. When assessing for substances that are known to harm workers lungs, the occupational health nurse should assess their potential exposure to which of the following? A) Organic acids B) Propane C) Asbestos D) Gypsum C Feedback: Asbestos is among the more common causes of pneumoconiosis. Organic acids, propane, and gypsum do not have this effect. A patient presents to the ED stating she was in a boating accident about 3 hours ago. Now the patient has complaints of headache, fatigue, and the feeling that he just cant breathe enough. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and tachycardic with an elevated blood pressure. This patient may be in the early stages of what respiratory problem? A) Pneumoconiosis B) Pleural effusion C) Acute respiratory failure D) Pneumonia C Feedback: Early signs of acute respiratory failure are those associated with impaired oxygenation and may include restlessness, fatigue, headache, dyspnea, air hunger, tachycardia, and increased blood pressure. As the hypoxemia progresses, more obvious signs may be present, including confusion, lethargy, tachycardia, tachypnea, central cyanosis, diaphoresis, and, finally, respiratory arrest. Pneumonia is infectious and would not result from trauma. Pneumoconiosis results from exposure to occupational toxins. A pleural effusion does not cause this constellation of symptoms. A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy for the treatment of pulmonary emboli. What is the best way for the nurse to assess the patients oxygenation status at the bedside? A) Obtain serial ABG samples. B) Monitor pulse oximetry readings. C) Test pulmonary function. D) Monitor incentive spirometry volumes. B feedback: The nurse assesses the patient with pulmonary emboli frequently for signs of hypoxemia and monitors the pulse oximetry values to evaluate the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy. ABGs are accurate indicators of oxygenation status, but are not analyzed at the bedside. PFTs and incentive spirometry The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient with a diagnosis of tracheobronchitis. The patient begins complaining of right-sided chest pain that gets worse when he coughs or breathes deeply. Vital signs are within normal limits. What would you suspect this patient is experiencing? A) Traumatic pneumothorax B) Empyema C) Pleuritic pain D) Myocardial Infarction C Feedback: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Pleuritic pain is limited in distribution rather than diffuse; it usually occurs only on one side. The pain may become minimal or absent when the breath is held. It may be localized or radiate to the shoulder or abdomen. Later, as pleural fluid develops, the pain decreases. The scenario does not indicate any trauma to the patient, so a traumatic pneumothorax is implausible. Empyema is unlikely as there is no fever indicative of infection. Myocardial infarction would affect the patients vital signs profoundly. A patient with thoracic trauma is admitted to the ICU. The nurse notes the patients chest and neck are swollen and there is a crackling sensation when palpated. The nurse consequently identifies the presence of subcutaneous emphysema. If this condition becomes severe and threatens airway patency, what intervention is indicated? A) A chest tube B) A tracheostomy C) An endotracheal tube D) A feeding tube B Feedback: In severe cases in which there is widespread subcutaneous emphysema, a tracheostomy is indicated if airway patency is threatened by pressure of the trapped air on the trachea. The other listed tubes would neither resolve the subcutaneous emphysema nor the consequent airway constriction. The home care nurse is monitoring a patient discharged home after resolution of a pulmonary embolus. For what potential complication would the home care nurse be most closely monitoring this patient? A) Signs and symptoms of pulmonary infection B) Swallowing ability and signs of aspiration C) Activity level and role performance D) Residual effects of compromised oxygenation D Feedback: The home care nurse should monitor the patient for residual effects of the PE, which involved a severe disruption in respiration and oxygenation. PE has a noninfectious etiology; pneumonia is not impossible, but it is a less likely sequela. Swallowing ability is unlikely to be affected; activity level is important, but secondary to the effects of deoxygenation. The occupational health nurse is assessing new employees at a company. What would be important to assess in employees with a potential occupational respiratory exposure to a toxin? Select all that apply. A) Time frame of exposure B) Type of respiratory protection used C) Immunization Status D) Breath sounds E) Intensity of exposure A, B, D, E Feedback: Key aspects of any assessment of patients with a potential occupational respiratory history include job and job activities, exposure levels, general hygiene, time frame of exposure, effectiveness of respiratory protection used, and direct versus indirect exposures. The patients current respiratory status would also be a priority. Occupational lung hazards are not normally influenced by immunizations. A patient who involved in a workplace accident suffered a penetrating wound of the chest that led to acute respiratory failure. What goal of treatment should the care team prioritize when planning this patients care? A) Facilitation of long-term intubation B) Restoration of adequate gas exchange C) Attainment of effective coping D) Self-management of oxygen therapy B Feedback: The objectives of treatment are to correct the underlying cause of respiratory failure and to restore adequate gas exchange in the lung. This is priority over coping and self-care. Long-term ventilation may or may not be indicated. A patient is brought to the ED by ambulance after a motor vehicle accident in which the patient received blunt trauma to the chest. The patient is in acute respiratory failure, is intubated, and is transferred to the ICU. What parameters of care should the nurse monitor most closely? Select all that apply. A) Coping B) Level of consciousness C) Oral intake D) Arterial blood gases E) Vital signs B, D, E Feedback: Patients are usually treated in the ICU. The nurse assesses the patients respiratory status by monitoring the level of responsiveness, ABGs, pulse oximetry, and vital signs. Oral intake and coping are not immediate priorities during the acute stage of treatment, but would become more important later during recovery. The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a patient with an empyema. What health problem in the patients history is most likely to have caused the empyema? A) Smoking B) Asbestosis C) Pneumonia D) Lung cancer C Feedback: Most empyemas occur as complications of bacterial pneumonia or lung abscess. Cancer, smoking, and asbestosis are not noted to be common causes. An 87-year-old patient has been hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action would be a priority in this patients plan of care? A) Nasogastric intubation B) Administration of probiotic supplements C) Bedrest D) Cautious hydration D Feedback: Supportive treatment of pneumonia in the elderly includes hydration (with caution and with frequent assessment because of the risk of fluid overload in the elderly); supplemental oxygen therapy; and assistance with deep breathing, coughing, frequent position changes, and early ambulation. Mobility is not normally discouraged and an NG tube is not necessary in most cases. Probiotics may or may not be prescribed for the patient. A 45-year-old obese man arrives in a clinic with complaints of daytime sleepiness, difficulty going to sleep at night, and snoring. The nurse should recognize the manifestations of what health problem? A) Adenoiditis B) Chronic tonsillitis C) Obstructive sleep apnea D) Laryngeal cancer C feedback: Obstructive sleep apnea occurs in men, especially those who are older and overweight. Symptoms include excessive daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and snoring. Daytime sleepiness and difficulty going to sleep at night are not indications of tonsillitis or adenoiditis. This patients symptoms are not suggestive of laryngeal cancer. A clinic nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient asks the nurse what he could have done to minimize the risk of contracting this disease. What would be the nurses best answer? A) The most important risk factor for COPD is exposure to occupational toxins. B) The most important risk factor for COPD is inadequate exercise. C) The most important risk factor for COPD is exposure to dust and pollen. D) The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking. D feedback: The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking. Lack of exercise and exposure to dust and pollen are not risk factors for COPD. Occupational risks are significant but are far exceeded by smoking. A nurse is creating a health promotion intervention focused on chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What should the nurse identify as a complication of COPD? A) Lung cancer B) Cystic fibrosis C) Respiratory failure D) Hemothorax C Feedback: Complications of COPD include respiratory failure, pneumothorax, atelectasis, pneumonia, and pulmonary hypertension (corpulmonale). Lung cancer, cystic fibrosis, and hemothorax are not common complications. The nurse is assessing a patient whose respiratory disease in characterized by chronic hyperinflation of the lungs. What would the nurse most likely assess in this patient? A) Signs of oxygen toxicity B) Chronic chest pain C) A barrel chest D) Long, thin fingers C Feedback: In COPD patients with a primary emphysematous component, chronic hyperinflation leads to the barrel chest thorax configuration. The nurse most likely would not assess chest pain or long, thin fingers; these are not characteristic of emphysema. The patient would not show signs of oxygen toxicity unless he or she received excess supplementary oxygen. A patient with emphysema is experiencing shortness of breath. To relieve this patients symptoms, the nurse should assist her into what position? A) Sitting upright, leaning forward slightly B) Low Fowlers, with the neck slightly hyperextended C) Prone D) Trendelenburg A feedback: The typical posture of a person with COPD is to lean forward and use the accessory muscles of respiration to breathe. Low Fowlers positioning would be less likely to aid oxygenation. Prone or Trendelenburg positioning would exacerbate shortness of breath. A school nurse is caring for a 10-year-old girl who is having an asthma attack. What is the preferred intervention to alleviate this clients airflow obstruction? A) Administer corticosteroids by metered dose inhaler B) Administer inhaled anticholinergics C) Administer an inhaled beta-adrenergic agonist D) Utilize a peak flow monitoring device C Feedback: Asthma exacerbations are best managed by early treatment and education of the patient. Quick-acting beta-adrenergic medications are the first used for prompt relief of airflow obstruction. Systemic corticosteroids may be necessary to decrease airway inflammation in patients who fail to respond to inhaled beta-adrenergic medication. A peak flow device will not resolve short-term shortness of breath. A student nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adult patient with asthma. Which teaching point should have the highest priority in the plan of care that the student is developing? A) Gradually increase levels of physical exertion. B) Change filters on heaters and air conditioners frequently. C) Take prescribed medications as scheduled. D) Avoid goose-down pillows. C Feedback: Although all of the measures are appropriate for a client with asthma, taking medications on time is the most important measure in preventing asthma attack A nurse is completing a focused respiratory assessment of a child with asthma. What assessment finding is most closely associated with the characteristic signs and symptoms of asthma? A) Shallow respirations B) Increased anterior-posterior (A-P) diameter C) Bilateral wheezes D) Bradypnea C Feedback: The three most common symptoms of asthma are cough, dyspnea, and wheezing. There may be generalized wheezing (the sound of airflow through narrowed airways), first on expiration and then, possibly, during inspiration as well. Respirations are not usually slow and the childs A-P diameter does not normally change. A nurse is developing the teaching portion of a care plan for a patient with COPD. What would be the most important component for the nurse to emphasize? A) Smoking up to one-half of a pack of cigarettes weekly is allowable. B) Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage. C) Minor respiratory infections are considered to be self-limited and are not treated. D) Activities of daily living (ADLs) should be clustered in the early morning hours. B Feedback: Environmental risk factors for COPD include prolonged and intense exposure to occupational dusts and chemicals, indoor air pollution, and outdoor air pollution. Smoking cessation should be taught to all patients who are currently smoking. Minor respiratory infections that are of no consequence to the person with normal lungs can produce fatal disturbances in the lungs of the person with emphysema. ADLs should be paced throughout the day to permit patients to perform these without excessive distress. A nursing is planning the care of a patient with emphysema who will soon be discharged. What teaching should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A) Taking prophylactic antibiotics as ordered B) Adhering to the treatment regimen in order to cure the disease C) Avoiding airplanes, buses, and other crowded public places D) Setting realistic short-term and long-range goals D Feedback: A major area of teaching involves setting and accepting realistic short-term and long-range goals. Emphysema is not considered curable and antibiotics are not used on a preventative basis. The patient does not normally need to avoid public places. A patient is having pulmonary-function studies performed. The patient performs a spirometry test, revealing an FEV1/FVC ratio of 60%. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding? A) Strong exercise tolerance B) Exhalation volume is normal C) Respiratory infection D) Obstructive lung disease D Feedback: Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of forced expiration volume in 1 second to forced vital capacity. Obstructive lung disease is apparent when an FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70%. A nurse has been asked to give a workshop on COPD for a local community group. The nurse emphasizes the importance of smoking cessation because smoking has what pathophysiologic effect? A) Increases the amount of mucus production B) Destabilizes hemoglobin C) Shrinks the alveoli in the lungs D) Collapses the alveoli in the lungs A Feedback: Smoking irritates the goblet cells and mucous glands, causing an increased accumulation of mucus, which, in turn, produces more irritation, infection, and damage to the lung. A pediatric nurse practitioner is caring for a child who has just been diagnosed with asthma. The nurse has provided the parents with information that includes potential causative agents for an asthmatic reaction. What potential causative agent should the nurse describe? A) Pets B) Lack of sleep C) Psychosocial stress D) Bacteria A Feedback: Common causative agents that may trigger an asthma attack are as follows: dust, dust mites, pets, soap, certain foods, molds, and pollens. Lack of sleep, stress, and bacteria are not common triggers for asthma attacks. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with COPD. When teaching the client about breathing exercises, what should the nurse include in the teaching? A) Lie supine to facilitate air entry B) Avoid pursed lip breathing C) Use diaphragmatic breathing D) Use chest breathing C Feedback: Inspiratory muscle training and breathing retraining may help improve breathing patterns in patients with COPD. Training in diaphragmatic breathing reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and, sometimes, helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Pursed-lip breathing helps slow expiration, prevents collapse of small airways, and controls the rate and depth of respiration. Diaphragmatic breathing, not chest breathing, increases lung expansion. Supine positioning does not aid breathing. An older adult patient has been diagnosed with COPD. What characteristic of the patients current health status would preclude the safe and effective use of a metered dose inhaler (MDI)? A) The patient has not yet quit smoking. B) The patient has severe arthritis in her hands. C) The patient requires both corticosteroids and beta2-agonists. D) The patient has cataracts. B Feedback: Safe and effective MDI use requires the patient to be able to manipulate the device independently, which may be difficult if the patient has arthritis. Smoking does not preclude MDI use. A modest loss of vision does not preclude the use of an MDI and a patient can safely use more than one MDI. A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment on a patient with COPD. It is most important for the nurse to review which of the following? A) Social work assessment B) Insurance coverage C) Chloride levels D) Available diagnostic tests D Feedback: In addition to the patients history, the nurse reviews the results of available diagnostic tests. Social work assessment is not a priority for the majority of patients. Chloride levels are relevant to CF, not COPD. Insurance coverage is not normally the domain of the nurse. An admitting nurse is assessing a patient with COPD. The nurse auscultates diminished breath sounds, which signify changes in the airway. These changes indicate to the nurse to monitor the patient for what? A) Kyphosis and clubbing of the fingers B) Dyspnea and hypoxemia C) Sepsis and pneumothorax D) Bradypnea and pursed lip breathing B Feedback: These changes in the airway require that the nurse monitor the patient for dyspnea and hypoxemia. Kyphosis is a musculoskeletal problem. Sepsis and pneumothorax are atypical complications. Tachypnea is much more likely than bradypnea. Pursed lip breathing can relieve dyspnea. A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patients medication regimen has been recently changed and the nurse is assessing for therapeutic effect of a new bronchodilator. What assessment parameters suggest a consequent improvement in respiratory status? Select all that apply. A) Negative sputum culture B) Increased viscosity of lung secretions C) Increased respiratory rate D) Increased expiratory flow rate E) Relief of dyspnea D, E Feedback: The relief of bronchospasm is confirmed by measuring improvement in expiratory flow rates and volumes (the