ATI FUNDAMENTALS RETAKE
REVIEW 2026 : QUESTIONS AND
RATIONALES/GRADED A+
UPDATE 100% CORRECT
High-Yield Comprehensive Topic Test
85 Questions | Latest NGN Standards | With Rationales
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control (Qs 1-12)
1. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which action demonstrates
the correct technique according to CDC 2026 guidelines?
• A. Using alcohol-based hand rub if hands are visibly soiled
• B. Rubbing hands together for at least 10 seconds after applying soap
• C. Keeping fingernails less than 0.25 inches (0.6 cm) long
• D. Wearing artificial nails when caring for high-risk patients
Rationale: Short natural nails reduce bacterial colonization. Artificial nails and
chipped polish harbor pathogens, especially in ICUs. Alcohol rub is not for visible soil;
20 seconds is recommended.
2. A patient on contact precautions for C. diff requires a peripheral IV start.
Which PPE is essential?
• A. Surgical mask and eye shield
, • B. N95 respirator and gown
• C. Gown and gloves with chlorhexidine bath prior
• D. Face shield only
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves for room entry. C. diff
spores are not killed by alcohol; soap and water hand hygiene is critical.
Chlorhexidine is not primary for C. diff.
3. A nurse discovers a small fire in a patient's trash can. What is the priority
action using RACE?
• A. Pull the fire alarm
• B. Remove the patient from the room
• C. Close all doors and windows
• D. Use the nearest fire extinguisher
Rationale: The first step in RACE is Rescue (remove patients from immediate
danger). Only then Activate alarm, Confine fire, and Extinguish.
4. A client with active tuberculosis is on airborne precautions. Which room
assignment is correct?
• A. Semi-private room with another TB patient
• B. Standard medical-surgical room with door open
• C. Negative pressure airflow room with N95 for staff
• D. Positive pressure room with HEPA filter
Rationale: Airborne precautions require negative pressure (air changes 6-12/hour)
and N95 respirator. Positive pressure is for protective isolation (e.g., neutropenic
patients).
5. Which finding indicates correct sterile gloving technique?
• A. Cuffs of gloves are pulled over the gown cuffs
• B. Gloved hands remain above waist level at all times
• C. Inner package is opened by reaching across the sterile field
• D. Gloves are removed by grasping outside of cuff
Rationale: Sterile gloved hands must stay above waist (sterile to sterile). Cuffs should
be below gown cuffs. Never reach across sterile field. Remove gloves by grasping
outside of cuff only for non-sterile.
6. A nurse is applying restraints to a confused patient pulling at IV lines. Which
action requires correction?
• A. Obtaining a provider's prescription within 15 minutes
, • B. Tying the restraint to the side rail of the bed
• C. Using a quick-release knot
• D. Removing restraint every 2 hours for ROM exercises
Rationale: Restraints must never be tied to side rails (risk of injury during bed
movement). Tie to movable bed frame. Quick-release knots and 2-hour checks are
correct.
7. A patient on neutropenic precautions refuses a low-bacteria diet. Which food
is most appropriate if the patient requests a snack?
• A. Fresh strawberries
• B. Commercially packaged yogurt
• C. Raw almonds
• D. Unpeeled apple
Rationale: Neutropenic diet includes no fresh fruits/veggies, raw nuts, or unpeeled
produce. Packaged, pasteurized yogurt is safe. All other options carry bacterial risk.
8. Which client should the nurse place in a private room with negative airflow?
• A. Client with suspected measles and cough
• B. Client with MRSA wound infection
• C. Client with RSV bronchiolitis
• D. Client with norovirus diarrhea
Rationale: Measles requires airborne precautions (negative pressure). MRSA and RSV
are contact/droplet. Norovirus is contact (with standard plus contact precautions).
9. A nurse is preparing to don PPE for a patient with COVID-19
(droplet/contact). What is the correct sequence?
• A. Gloves → Gown → Mask → Eye protection
• B. Gown → Mask → Eye protection → Gloves
• C. Mask → Gloves → Gown → Eye protection
• D. Eye protection → Mask → Gown → Gloves
Rationale: PPE donning sequence: Gown first, then mask or respirator, then eye
protection, then gloves (last). Doffing: Gloves first, then eye, then gown, then mask.
10. A nurse accidentally sustains a needlestick after injecting a patient with
hepatitis B unknown status. First action?
• A. Report to employee health within 24 hours
• B. Wash the site with soap and water
• C. Squeeze the wound to express blood
REVIEW 2026 : QUESTIONS AND
RATIONALES/GRADED A+
UPDATE 100% CORRECT
High-Yield Comprehensive Topic Test
85 Questions | Latest NGN Standards | With Rationales
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control (Qs 1-12)
1. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which action demonstrates
the correct technique according to CDC 2026 guidelines?
• A. Using alcohol-based hand rub if hands are visibly soiled
• B. Rubbing hands together for at least 10 seconds after applying soap
• C. Keeping fingernails less than 0.25 inches (0.6 cm) long
• D. Wearing artificial nails when caring for high-risk patients
Rationale: Short natural nails reduce bacterial colonization. Artificial nails and
chipped polish harbor pathogens, especially in ICUs. Alcohol rub is not for visible soil;
20 seconds is recommended.
2. A patient on contact precautions for C. diff requires a peripheral IV start.
Which PPE is essential?
• A. Surgical mask and eye shield
, • B. N95 respirator and gown
• C. Gown and gloves with chlorhexidine bath prior
• D. Face shield only
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves for room entry. C. diff
spores are not killed by alcohol; soap and water hand hygiene is critical.
Chlorhexidine is not primary for C. diff.
3. A nurse discovers a small fire in a patient's trash can. What is the priority
action using RACE?
• A. Pull the fire alarm
• B. Remove the patient from the room
• C. Close all doors and windows
• D. Use the nearest fire extinguisher
Rationale: The first step in RACE is Rescue (remove patients from immediate
danger). Only then Activate alarm, Confine fire, and Extinguish.
4. A client with active tuberculosis is on airborne precautions. Which room
assignment is correct?
• A. Semi-private room with another TB patient
• B. Standard medical-surgical room with door open
• C. Negative pressure airflow room with N95 for staff
• D. Positive pressure room with HEPA filter
Rationale: Airborne precautions require negative pressure (air changes 6-12/hour)
and N95 respirator. Positive pressure is for protective isolation (e.g., neutropenic
patients).
5. Which finding indicates correct sterile gloving technique?
• A. Cuffs of gloves are pulled over the gown cuffs
• B. Gloved hands remain above waist level at all times
• C. Inner package is opened by reaching across the sterile field
• D. Gloves are removed by grasping outside of cuff
Rationale: Sterile gloved hands must stay above waist (sterile to sterile). Cuffs should
be below gown cuffs. Never reach across sterile field. Remove gloves by grasping
outside of cuff only for non-sterile.
6. A nurse is applying restraints to a confused patient pulling at IV lines. Which
action requires correction?
• A. Obtaining a provider's prescription within 15 minutes
, • B. Tying the restraint to the side rail of the bed
• C. Using a quick-release knot
• D. Removing restraint every 2 hours for ROM exercises
Rationale: Restraints must never be tied to side rails (risk of injury during bed
movement). Tie to movable bed frame. Quick-release knots and 2-hour checks are
correct.
7. A patient on neutropenic precautions refuses a low-bacteria diet. Which food
is most appropriate if the patient requests a snack?
• A. Fresh strawberries
• B. Commercially packaged yogurt
• C. Raw almonds
• D. Unpeeled apple
Rationale: Neutropenic diet includes no fresh fruits/veggies, raw nuts, or unpeeled
produce. Packaged, pasteurized yogurt is safe. All other options carry bacterial risk.
8. Which client should the nurse place in a private room with negative airflow?
• A. Client with suspected measles and cough
• B. Client with MRSA wound infection
• C. Client with RSV bronchiolitis
• D. Client with norovirus diarrhea
Rationale: Measles requires airborne precautions (negative pressure). MRSA and RSV
are contact/droplet. Norovirus is contact (with standard plus contact precautions).
9. A nurse is preparing to don PPE for a patient with COVID-19
(droplet/contact). What is the correct sequence?
• A. Gloves → Gown → Mask → Eye protection
• B. Gown → Mask → Eye protection → Gloves
• C. Mask → Gloves → Gown → Eye protection
• D. Eye protection → Mask → Gown → Gloves
Rationale: PPE donning sequence: Gown first, then mask or respirator, then eye
protection, then gloves (last). Doffing: Gloves first, then eye, then gown, then mask.
10. A nurse accidentally sustains a needlestick after injecting a patient with
hepatitis B unknown status. First action?
• A. Report to employee health within 24 hours
• B. Wash the site with soap and water
• C. Squeeze the wound to express blood
