EXAM SUCCESS PACK 2026 :
QUESTIONS AND
RATIONALES/GRADED A+
UPDATE 100% CORRECT
SECTION 1: SAFETY AND INFECTION CONTROL
(Questions 1-12)
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which of the following actions
demonstrates proper technique?
A) Using hot water to destroy microorganisms
B) Keeping hands lower than elbows while rinsing
C) Wearing artificial nails to reduce bacterial counts
D) Rubbing hands dry with a cloth towel after alcohol-based rub application
Correct Answer: B - Keeping hands lower than elbows while rinsing allows water to
flow from the clean area (hands) toward the dirty area (elbows), preventing
recontamination.
Rationale: Hand hygiene requires keeping hands below elbows during rinsing to
prevent contaminated water from flowing back onto clean hands. Hot water
damages skin; artificial nails harbor bacteria; hands should air dry after alcohol rub.
Question 2
A client has been placed on contact precautions. Which PPE should the nurse don
first?
A) Gloves
B) Mask
,C) Gown
D) Eye protection
Correct Answer: C - Gown should be donned first for contact precautions.
Rationale: The order of donning PPE is: gown, mask, eye protection, gloves.
Removing PPE follows reverse order: gloves, eye protection, gown, mask. This
sequence prevents contamination during application and removal.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client with C. difficile infection. Which hand hygiene product is
most appropriate?
A) Alcohol-based hand sanitizer
B) Antimicrobial soap and water
C) Plain soap and water
D) Chlorhexidine wipes
Correct Answer: C - Plain soap and water is recommended for C. difficile.
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers. The mechanical
action of washing with soap and water is necessary to physically remove spores from
hands. Antimicrobial soap provides no additional benefit for spore removal.
Question 4
A client falls while attempting to get out of bed unassisted. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A) Complete an incident report
B) Assess the client for injuries
C) Notify the provider
D) Place the client back in bed
Correct Answer: B - Assess the client for injuries first.
Rationale: The immediate priority is client assessment for potential injury. After
assessment, the nurse should ensure client safety, notify the provider, document
findings, and then complete an incident report. Never move a client before assessing
for possible spinal injury.
,Question 5
A nurse is applying restraints to a confused client who is pulling at IV lines. Which
action is correct?
A) Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement
B) Tie restraints using a quick-release knot
C) Secure restraints to the side rail
D) Leave restraints on for 8 hours before reassessment
Correct Answer: B - Quick-release knots allow immediate removal in an emergency.
Rationale: Restraints must have quick-release ties attached to the bed frame (not
side rails, which move). They should be loose enough for 1-2 fingers to fit
underneath. Face-to-face reassessment is required every 4 hours for adults (2 hours
for children).
Question 6
A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which technique maintains sterile
field?
A) Opening sterile package away from the body
B) Placing sterile items within 2 inches of field edge
C) Reaching over the sterile field to obtain supplies
D) Using sterile gloves to open the outer package wrap
Correct Answer: A - Opening the sterile package away from body prevents
contamination.
Rationale: The outer 1-inch border of a sterile field is considered contaminated.
Sterile items should be placed in the center. Never reach across a sterile field. Open
the outer wrapper first with bare hands, then use sterile gloves to open inner
package.
Question 7
A client with tuberculosis requires which type of precautions?
A) Contact precautions
B) Droplet precautions
C) Airborne precautions
D) Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C - Airborne precautions are required for TB.
, Rationale: TB requires airborne precautions: N95 respirator mask, negative pressure
room, and special air handling. Diseases requiring airborne precautions include TB,
measles, varicella (chickenpox), and disseminated shingles.
Question 8
A nurse is educating a client about fire safety. Which class of fire extinguisher should
be used for electrical fires?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
Correct Answer: C - Class C extinguishers are for electrical fires.
Rationale: Class A: ordinary combustibles (wood, paper); Class B: flammable liquids
(grease, oil); Class C: electrical equipment; Class D: combustible metals; Class K:
kitchen fires (cooking oils).
Question 9
A nurse discovers a small fire in a client's trash can. What is the correct order of
actions using RACE?
A) Alarm, Confine, Rescue, Extinguish
B) Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish
C) Confine, Extinguish, Rescue, Alarm
D) Rescue, Confine, Alarm, Extinguish
Correct Answer: B - Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish is the correct RACE protocol.
Rationale: RACE: Rescue clients in immediate danger, Alarm (activate fire alarm),
Confine the fire (close doors/windows), Extinguish if small and manageable. Client
safety is always the priority.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client on seizure precautions. Which item should be kept at the
bedside?
A) Oral airway