NSG 520 Nursing Pathophysiology & Pharmacology
Comprehensive Review with Complete Solutions
Cardiovascular Q1–5
Q1. ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by:
A. Blocking calcium channels
B. Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
C. Stimulating beta receptors
D. Increasing sodium reabsorption
Rationale: They prevent conversion of angiotensin I → II, reducing vasoconstriction.
Q2. Left-sided heart failure most often leads to:
A. Peripheral edema
B. Pulmonary congestion
C. Jugular vein distension
D. Hepatomegaly
Rationale: Left-sided failure backs blood into lungs → pulmonary edema.
Q3. Which lab is most specific for myocardial infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I/T
C. LDH
D. Myoglobin
Rationale: Troponins are highly specific and remain elevated longer.
Q4. Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand by:
A. Increasing contractility
B. Slowing heart rate
,C. Dilating coronary arteries
D. Enhancing preload
Rationale: They decrease HR and contractility, lowering oxygen demand.
Q5. A patient with atrial fibrillation is at greatest risk for:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Stroke
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pneumonia
Rationale: AF predisposes to atrial thrombus formation → embolic stroke.
Respiratory Q6–10
Q6. COPD hallmark:
A. Restrictive pattern
B. Irreversible airflow limitation
C. Increased FEV1/FVC
D. Decreased residual volume
Rationale: COPD = chronic, irreversible obstruction.
Q7. Asthma pathophysiology involves:
A. Loss of alveoli
B. Airway hyperresponsiveness
C. Fibrosis
D. Surfactant deficiency
Rationale: Asthma = reversible bronchospasm due to inflammation.
Q8. First-line rescue drug for asthma:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Beta-2 agonists
,C. Leukotriene inhibitors
D. Anticholinergics
Rationale: Short-acting beta-2 agonists (albuterol) provide rapid relief.
Q9. Hypoxemia is defined as:
A. Low PaCO2
B. Low PaO2
C. Low HCO3
D. Low O2 saturation only
Rationale: Hypoxemia = decreased arterial oxygen tension.
Q10. Classic sign of pulmonary embolism:
A. Bradycardia
B. Sudden dyspnea and chest pain
C. Productive cough
D. Wheezing
Rationale: PE presents with acute shortness of breath, pleuritic pain.
Endocrine Q11–15
Q11. DKA hallmark:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperglycemia + ketones
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: DKA = hyperglycemia, ketonemia, metabolic acidosis.
Q12. Hypothyroidism symptoms include:
A. Weight loss
B. Heat intolerance
, C. Bradycardia
D. Tremors
Rationale: Low thyroid → slowed metabolism → bradycardia, cold intolerance.
Q13. Addison’s disease involves deficiency of:
A. Cortisol and aldosterone
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Growth hormone
Rationale: Adrenal insufficiency = low cortisol + aldosterone.
Q14. SIADH causes:
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Excess ADH → water retention → dilutional hyponatremia.
Q15. Long-term corticosteroid use risk:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Weight loss
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Steroids increase bone resorption → osteoporosis.
Neurology Q16–20
Q16. Parkinson’s disease hallmark:
A. Loss of dopamine in substantia nigra
B. Loss of acetylcholine
Comprehensive Review with Complete Solutions
Cardiovascular Q1–5
Q1. ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by:
A. Blocking calcium channels
B. Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
C. Stimulating beta receptors
D. Increasing sodium reabsorption
Rationale: They prevent conversion of angiotensin I → II, reducing vasoconstriction.
Q2. Left-sided heart failure most often leads to:
A. Peripheral edema
B. Pulmonary congestion
C. Jugular vein distension
D. Hepatomegaly
Rationale: Left-sided failure backs blood into lungs → pulmonary edema.
Q3. Which lab is most specific for myocardial infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I/T
C. LDH
D. Myoglobin
Rationale: Troponins are highly specific and remain elevated longer.
Q4. Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand by:
A. Increasing contractility
B. Slowing heart rate
,C. Dilating coronary arteries
D. Enhancing preload
Rationale: They decrease HR and contractility, lowering oxygen demand.
Q5. A patient with atrial fibrillation is at greatest risk for:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Stroke
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pneumonia
Rationale: AF predisposes to atrial thrombus formation → embolic stroke.
Respiratory Q6–10
Q6. COPD hallmark:
A. Restrictive pattern
B. Irreversible airflow limitation
C. Increased FEV1/FVC
D. Decreased residual volume
Rationale: COPD = chronic, irreversible obstruction.
Q7. Asthma pathophysiology involves:
A. Loss of alveoli
B. Airway hyperresponsiveness
C. Fibrosis
D. Surfactant deficiency
Rationale: Asthma = reversible bronchospasm due to inflammation.
Q8. First-line rescue drug for asthma:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Beta-2 agonists
,C. Leukotriene inhibitors
D. Anticholinergics
Rationale: Short-acting beta-2 agonists (albuterol) provide rapid relief.
Q9. Hypoxemia is defined as:
A. Low PaCO2
B. Low PaO2
C. Low HCO3
D. Low O2 saturation only
Rationale: Hypoxemia = decreased arterial oxygen tension.
Q10. Classic sign of pulmonary embolism:
A. Bradycardia
B. Sudden dyspnea and chest pain
C. Productive cough
D. Wheezing
Rationale: PE presents with acute shortness of breath, pleuritic pain.
Endocrine Q11–15
Q11. DKA hallmark:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperglycemia + ketones
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: DKA = hyperglycemia, ketonemia, metabolic acidosis.
Q12. Hypothyroidism symptoms include:
A. Weight loss
B. Heat intolerance
, C. Bradycardia
D. Tremors
Rationale: Low thyroid → slowed metabolism → bradycardia, cold intolerance.
Q13. Addison’s disease involves deficiency of:
A. Cortisol and aldosterone
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Growth hormone
Rationale: Adrenal insufficiency = low cortisol + aldosterone.
Q14. SIADH causes:
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Excess ADH → water retention → dilutional hyponatremia.
Q15. Long-term corticosteroid use risk:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Weight loss
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Steroids increase bone resorption → osteoporosis.
Neurology Q16–20
Q16. Parkinson’s disease hallmark:
A. Loss of dopamine in substantia nigra
B. Loss of acetylcholine
