ATI Capstone: Maternal Newborn
Assessment Actual Exam -Questions with
Correct Answers & Explanations | Graded
A+ Study Guide.
Antepartum Nursing Care
1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) White blood cell count 15,000/mm³
B) Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
C) Rubella titer < 1:8
D) Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
*Explanation: A rubella titer of <1:8 indicates non-immunity. The client should receive
the MMR vaccine immediately postpartum as it is a live vaccine contraindicated during
pregnancy. Elevated WBCs (up to 16,000) and mild anemia are expected in pregnancy. *
2. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes during pregnancy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A) "My heart rate will slow down because the baby is using my blood."
B) "I may feel short of breath because the baby pushes up on my lungs."
C) "My blood pressure will drop significantly in the third trimester."
D) "I will have increased urine output in the third trimester."
Correct answer: B
*Explanation: As the uterus expands, it pushes against the diaphragm, causing dyspnea.
Heart rate increases (not slows) by 10-15 bpm. Blood pressure slightly decreases in the
second trimester but returns to baseline in the third. Urinary frequency (not output)
increases due to pressure on the bladder. *
,3. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of birth (EDB) using Naegele's rule for a
client whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on September 10, 2025. What is the
EDB?
A) June 3, 2026
B) June 10, 2026
C) June 17, 2026
D) June 24, 2026
Correct answer: C
*Explanation: Naegele's rule: Subtract 3 months from LMP and add 7 days. September -
3 = June. 10 + 7 = 17. Therefore, June 17, 2026. *
4. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
A) Swelling of the feet and ankles in the evening
B) Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
C) Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
D) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, especially in the third
trimester, is a classic sign of preeclampsia until proven otherwise. It requires immediate
assessment of blood pressure and urine protein.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which finding should the
nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?
A) Mild ankle edema
B) Blurred vision
C) Backache
D) Frequent urination
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Blurred vision is a sign of preeclampsia and indicates cerebral irritation. It
requires immediate assessment and reporting.
6. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation
and has preeclampsia. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Platelets 250,000/mm³
B) BUN 35 mg/dL
C) Hematocrit 36%
D) Glucose 90 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
, *Explanation: BUN 35 mg/dL is elevated and indicates possible renal impairment, which
can occur with severe preeclampsia. Normal BUN in pregnancy is 8-10 mg/dL. *
7. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and
has phenylketonuria (PKU). Which suggested food should the nurse include?
A) A sliced apple and red grapes
B) A turkey and cheese sandwich
C) Greek yogurt with granola
D) Peanut butter crackers
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Clients with PKU must avoid high-protein foods containing phenylalanine.
Fruits like apples and grapes are low in protein and safe to consume.
8. A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes the client is taking tamoxifen.
The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which condition?
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Breast cancer
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Endometriosis
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Tamoxifen is an estrogen receptor blocker used to treat breast cancer. It is
also used prophylactically in high-risk patients.
9. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client who is Rh-negative about Rh (D) immune
globulin. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A) "This shot will prevent me from becoming anemic during pregnancy."
B) "This shot may be given after birth to protect future pregnancies."
C) "I only need this shot if my baby is born with jaundice."
D) "The shot will treat my baby's blood disorder."
Correct answer: B
*Explanation: Rh immune globulin is given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after birth if
the baby is Rh-positive to prevent maternal antibody formation that would affect future
pregnancies. *
10. A nurse is providing teaching to a group of women about risk factors for ovarian
cancer. Which factors should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A) Nulliparity
B) History of breast cancer
C) Hormone replacement therapy
D) Early menopause
Assessment Actual Exam -Questions with
Correct Answers & Explanations | Graded
A+ Study Guide.
Antepartum Nursing Care
1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) White blood cell count 15,000/mm³
B) Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
C) Rubella titer < 1:8
D) Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
*Explanation: A rubella titer of <1:8 indicates non-immunity. The client should receive
the MMR vaccine immediately postpartum as it is a live vaccine contraindicated during
pregnancy. Elevated WBCs (up to 16,000) and mild anemia are expected in pregnancy. *
2. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes during pregnancy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A) "My heart rate will slow down because the baby is using my blood."
B) "I may feel short of breath because the baby pushes up on my lungs."
C) "My blood pressure will drop significantly in the third trimester."
D) "I will have increased urine output in the third trimester."
Correct answer: B
*Explanation: As the uterus expands, it pushes against the diaphragm, causing dyspnea.
Heart rate increases (not slows) by 10-15 bpm. Blood pressure slightly decreases in the
second trimester but returns to baseline in the third. Urinary frequency (not output)
increases due to pressure on the bladder. *
,3. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of birth (EDB) using Naegele's rule for a
client whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on September 10, 2025. What is the
EDB?
A) June 3, 2026
B) June 10, 2026
C) June 17, 2026
D) June 24, 2026
Correct answer: C
*Explanation: Naegele's rule: Subtract 3 months from LMP and add 7 days. September -
3 = June. 10 + 7 = 17. Therefore, June 17, 2026. *
4. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
A) Swelling of the feet and ankles in the evening
B) Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
C) Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
D) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, especially in the third
trimester, is a classic sign of preeclampsia until proven otherwise. It requires immediate
assessment of blood pressure and urine protein.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which finding should the
nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?
A) Mild ankle edema
B) Blurred vision
C) Backache
D) Frequent urination
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Blurred vision is a sign of preeclampsia and indicates cerebral irritation. It
requires immediate assessment and reporting.
6. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation
and has preeclampsia. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Platelets 250,000/mm³
B) BUN 35 mg/dL
C) Hematocrit 36%
D) Glucose 90 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
, *Explanation: BUN 35 mg/dL is elevated and indicates possible renal impairment, which
can occur with severe preeclampsia. Normal BUN in pregnancy is 8-10 mg/dL. *
7. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and
has phenylketonuria (PKU). Which suggested food should the nurse include?
A) A sliced apple and red grapes
B) A turkey and cheese sandwich
C) Greek yogurt with granola
D) Peanut butter crackers
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Clients with PKU must avoid high-protein foods containing phenylalanine.
Fruits like apples and grapes are low in protein and safe to consume.
8. A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes the client is taking tamoxifen.
The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which condition?
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Breast cancer
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Endometriosis
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Tamoxifen is an estrogen receptor blocker used to treat breast cancer. It is
also used prophylactically in high-risk patients.
9. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client who is Rh-negative about Rh (D) immune
globulin. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A) "This shot will prevent me from becoming anemic during pregnancy."
B) "This shot may be given after birth to protect future pregnancies."
C) "I only need this shot if my baby is born with jaundice."
D) "The shot will treat my baby's blood disorder."
Correct answer: B
*Explanation: Rh immune globulin is given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after birth if
the baby is Rh-positive to prevent maternal antibody formation that would affect future
pregnancies. *
10. A nurse is providing teaching to a group of women about risk factors for ovarian
cancer. Which factors should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A) Nulliparity
B) History of breast cancer
C) Hormone replacement therapy
D) Early menopause
