SMQT PACKAGED ACTUAL EXAM PAPER
2026 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+
• How can the software help determine the new admissions?.
Answer: Any residents on the alphabetical list from the facility that are not
in the software should be the admissions in the last 30 days
• What is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?.
Answer: Syndrome related to the use of antispychotics that presents with a
sudden onset of diffuse muscle rigidity, high fever, labile blood pressure,
tremor, and cognitive dysfunction. Potentially fatal if not treated
immediatley, including stopping the offending medication.
• What is the definition of Jeopardy?.
Answer: A providers noncompliance has caused, or is likely to cause,
serious injury, harm, impairment or death.
• Principles of Documentation #5.
Answer: Interpretive Guidance - the deficiency citation explains how the
entity fails to comply with the regulatory requirements, not the interpretation
of those requirements.
• What is "anticholinergic side effect"?.
Answer: an effect of a medication that may cause dry mouth, blurred vision,
tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, confusion, delirium,
hallucinations, flushed and increased blood pressure
• a situation in which the providers noncompliance with one or more
requirements of participation has caused, or is likely to cause, serious injury,
harm, impairment, or death to a resident.
Answer: What is the definition of Immediate Jeopardy?
• 1. screening 2. training 3. prevention 4. identification 5. investigation 6.
, protection 7. reporting/response.
Answer: Key components to prevent abuse and neglect?
• 10 CMS Regional Offices (pt 2).
Answer: - Conduct Federal surveys of providers & suppliers to ensure that
standards & procedures are being applied in a uniform & consistent manner
- Prepare data based on SA survey findings for input into CMS's Online
Data Input & Edit (ODIE) system - ***ODIE is a subsystem of the Online
Survey Certification & Reporting (OSCAR) system, which is a database &
retrieval program*** - Analyze OSCAR data, provide feedback to SAs on
certification information tracked by the system - Conduct surveillance and
assessments of SA operations and assist SAs in developing the capability to
provide direct assistance to providers and suppliers, review SA certification
actions, and provide feedback to States - Conduct FEDERAL surveys of
providers and suppliers to ensure that standards and procedures are being
applied in a uniform and consistent manner
• Investigative Protocol for Abuse Prohibition: 7) Interview Front Line
Supervisors.
Answer: Obtain a List of Recently Hired Employees: Obtain a list of all
employees hired within the previous four months, and select five from this
list. Then, ask the facility to provide written evidence that the facility
conducted a pre-screening based on the regulatory requirements in - 42 CFR
- 483.13(c)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) (view F225)
• Interpretive Guidance - the deficiency citation explains how the entity fails
to comply with the regulatory requirements, not the interpretation of those
requirements..
Answer: Principles of Documentation #5
• What is a significant medication error?.
Answer: error which causes the resident discomfort or jeopardizes health
and safety
• Social Security Act, Section 1864(a).
Answer: Directs the Secretary of the Department of Health & Human
, Services (DHHS) to use the help of state health agencies or other
appropriate agencies when determining whether health care entities meet
Federal standards. A) Functions that state agencies perform include the
following: - Identifying potential participants - Conducting investigations &
fact-finding surveys - Certifying & recertifying - Explaining requirements -
Operating toll-free home health hotline B) The state agencies (SA) are
authorized to perform numerous other functions under a blanket clause of
the state agency agreement, by exclusive agreement, or by statute. These
functions include the following: - Identifying Prospective Payment System
(PPS) excluded institutions - Participating in validation surveys of
accredited entities - Monitoring proficiency testing - Directing data entry -
Nurse Aid Training - Nurse Aide Registry - Resident Assess
• 1. lack of timely assessment of individuals after injury 2. lack of supervision
for individual with known special needs 3. failure to carry out dr orders 4.
repeated occurrences such as falls which place the individual at risk of harm
without intervention 5. access to chemical and physical hazards by
individuals who are at risk 6. access to hot water of sufficient temperature to
cause tissue injury 7. non functioning call system without compensatory
measures 8. unsupervised smoking by an individual with a known safety
risk 9. lack of supervision of cognitively impaired individuals with known
elopement risk 10. failure to adequately monitor individuals with known
severe self-injurious behavior 11. failure to adequately monitor and
intervene for serious medical/surgical conditions 12. use of
chemical./physical restraints without adequate monitoring 13. improper
feeding/positioning of individual with known aspiration ri.
Answer: Failure to prevent neglect triggers?
• Chapter 1865 of SSA establishes five different nationally approved
accreditation organizations. List them:.
Answer: 1) The Joint Commission (TJC) 2) American Osteopathic
Association (AOA) 3) Community Health Accreditation Program (CHAP)
4) Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Healthcare, Inc. (AAAHC) 5)
American Association for Accreditation for Ambulatory Surgery Facilities
, (AAAASF)
• What is iatrogenesis?.
Answer: a problem that is caused by a treatment
• When should you contact the RAI coordinator?.
Answer: If the number of residents is unreasonable after exporting the
survey shell
• CMS Depends on Its Surveyors.
Answer: - As a surveyor, you are part of a team engaged in a process that
aims to ensure that beneficiaries receive quality health care in a safe
environment. - The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
depends on your knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and commitment
to monitor compliance with the regulatory conditions & requirements. - As a
surveyor, you are part of a team that helps to evaluate a facility's
compliance; you must show knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and
commitment; and you must base your judgments on objective findings.
• Principles of Documentation #4.
Answer: Relevant onsite correction of findings - if during the survey the
entity corrects the situation that resulted in the deficiency, a determination
of "not met" must be documented on the 2567. The entity may indicate its
corrections in the right-hand column of the 2567. During IJ, if the facility
initiates corrective actions that abate a finding for IJ, follow the guidance in
appendix Q
• Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.
Answer: Title XVIII (18) established regulations for the Medicare program.
The Chapter also provides insurance coverage for hospital, post-hospital,
home health services, and hospice care for the aged and disabled. regardless
of income or health status.
• 1. Harm a. Actual - was there an outcome of harm? b. Potential - Is there the
likelihood of potential harm? 2. Immediacy - Is the harm or potential harm
likely to occur in the very near future? 3. Culpability - a. did the entity know
2026 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+
• How can the software help determine the new admissions?.
Answer: Any residents on the alphabetical list from the facility that are not
in the software should be the admissions in the last 30 days
• What is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?.
Answer: Syndrome related to the use of antispychotics that presents with a
sudden onset of diffuse muscle rigidity, high fever, labile blood pressure,
tremor, and cognitive dysfunction. Potentially fatal if not treated
immediatley, including stopping the offending medication.
• What is the definition of Jeopardy?.
Answer: A providers noncompliance has caused, or is likely to cause,
serious injury, harm, impairment or death.
• Principles of Documentation #5.
Answer: Interpretive Guidance - the deficiency citation explains how the
entity fails to comply with the regulatory requirements, not the interpretation
of those requirements.
• What is "anticholinergic side effect"?.
Answer: an effect of a medication that may cause dry mouth, blurred vision,
tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, confusion, delirium,
hallucinations, flushed and increased blood pressure
• a situation in which the providers noncompliance with one or more
requirements of participation has caused, or is likely to cause, serious injury,
harm, impairment, or death to a resident.
Answer: What is the definition of Immediate Jeopardy?
• 1. screening 2. training 3. prevention 4. identification 5. investigation 6.
, protection 7. reporting/response.
Answer: Key components to prevent abuse and neglect?
• 10 CMS Regional Offices (pt 2).
Answer: - Conduct Federal surveys of providers & suppliers to ensure that
standards & procedures are being applied in a uniform & consistent manner
- Prepare data based on SA survey findings for input into CMS's Online
Data Input & Edit (ODIE) system - ***ODIE is a subsystem of the Online
Survey Certification & Reporting (OSCAR) system, which is a database &
retrieval program*** - Analyze OSCAR data, provide feedback to SAs on
certification information tracked by the system - Conduct surveillance and
assessments of SA operations and assist SAs in developing the capability to
provide direct assistance to providers and suppliers, review SA certification
actions, and provide feedback to States - Conduct FEDERAL surveys of
providers and suppliers to ensure that standards and procedures are being
applied in a uniform and consistent manner
• Investigative Protocol for Abuse Prohibition: 7) Interview Front Line
Supervisors.
Answer: Obtain a List of Recently Hired Employees: Obtain a list of all
employees hired within the previous four months, and select five from this
list. Then, ask the facility to provide written evidence that the facility
conducted a pre-screening based on the regulatory requirements in - 42 CFR
- 483.13(c)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) (view F225)
• Interpretive Guidance - the deficiency citation explains how the entity fails
to comply with the regulatory requirements, not the interpretation of those
requirements..
Answer: Principles of Documentation #5
• What is a significant medication error?.
Answer: error which causes the resident discomfort or jeopardizes health
and safety
• Social Security Act, Section 1864(a).
Answer: Directs the Secretary of the Department of Health & Human
, Services (DHHS) to use the help of state health agencies or other
appropriate agencies when determining whether health care entities meet
Federal standards. A) Functions that state agencies perform include the
following: - Identifying potential participants - Conducting investigations &
fact-finding surveys - Certifying & recertifying - Explaining requirements -
Operating toll-free home health hotline B) The state agencies (SA) are
authorized to perform numerous other functions under a blanket clause of
the state agency agreement, by exclusive agreement, or by statute. These
functions include the following: - Identifying Prospective Payment System
(PPS) excluded institutions - Participating in validation surveys of
accredited entities - Monitoring proficiency testing - Directing data entry -
Nurse Aid Training - Nurse Aide Registry - Resident Assess
• 1. lack of timely assessment of individuals after injury 2. lack of supervision
for individual with known special needs 3. failure to carry out dr orders 4.
repeated occurrences such as falls which place the individual at risk of harm
without intervention 5. access to chemical and physical hazards by
individuals who are at risk 6. access to hot water of sufficient temperature to
cause tissue injury 7. non functioning call system without compensatory
measures 8. unsupervised smoking by an individual with a known safety
risk 9. lack of supervision of cognitively impaired individuals with known
elopement risk 10. failure to adequately monitor individuals with known
severe self-injurious behavior 11. failure to adequately monitor and
intervene for serious medical/surgical conditions 12. use of
chemical./physical restraints without adequate monitoring 13. improper
feeding/positioning of individual with known aspiration ri.
Answer: Failure to prevent neglect triggers?
• Chapter 1865 of SSA establishes five different nationally approved
accreditation organizations. List them:.
Answer: 1) The Joint Commission (TJC) 2) American Osteopathic
Association (AOA) 3) Community Health Accreditation Program (CHAP)
4) Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Healthcare, Inc. (AAAHC) 5)
American Association for Accreditation for Ambulatory Surgery Facilities
, (AAAASF)
• What is iatrogenesis?.
Answer: a problem that is caused by a treatment
• When should you contact the RAI coordinator?.
Answer: If the number of residents is unreasonable after exporting the
survey shell
• CMS Depends on Its Surveyors.
Answer: - As a surveyor, you are part of a team engaged in a process that
aims to ensure that beneficiaries receive quality health care in a safe
environment. - The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
depends on your knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and commitment
to monitor compliance with the regulatory conditions & requirements. - As a
surveyor, you are part of a team that helps to evaluate a facility's
compliance; you must show knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and
commitment; and you must base your judgments on objective findings.
• Principles of Documentation #4.
Answer: Relevant onsite correction of findings - if during the survey the
entity corrects the situation that resulted in the deficiency, a determination
of "not met" must be documented on the 2567. The entity may indicate its
corrections in the right-hand column of the 2567. During IJ, if the facility
initiates corrective actions that abate a finding for IJ, follow the guidance in
appendix Q
• Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.
Answer: Title XVIII (18) established regulations for the Medicare program.
The Chapter also provides insurance coverage for hospital, post-hospital,
home health services, and hospice care for the aged and disabled. regardless
of income or health status.
• 1. Harm a. Actual - was there an outcome of harm? b. Potential - Is there the
likelihood of potential harm? 2. Immediacy - Is the harm or potential harm
likely to occur in the very near future? 3. Culpability - a. did the entity know
