SMQT PACKAGED CERTIFICATION SCRIPT
2026 QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
GRADED A+
• Significant weight loss in 1 month?.
Answer: 5% weight loss
• Severe weight loss is 3 months?.
Answer: greater than 7.5% weight loss
• What is the definition of Immediate Jeopardy?.
Answer: a situation in which the providers noncompliance with one or more
requirements of participation has caused, or is likely to cause, serious injury,
harm, impairment, or death to a resident
• Principles of Documentation #1.
Answer: Entity compliance and noncompliance -When an entity complies
with the requirements applicable to the survey conducted, the form
CMS-2567 should consist of an explicit statement that the entity is in
compliance. - If an entity does not comply with one or more applicable
requirements, the form CMS-2567 includes corresponding citations of
noncompliance
• SOM, Chapter 7: Survey & Enforcement Process of SNFs & NFs, Section
7000 NEGLECT.
Answer: Neglect is defined as the failure to provide goods & services
necessary to avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness. 42 CFR
§488.301
• Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments Committee (CLIAC).
Answer: The Centers for Disease Control & Prevention is responsible for the
CLIA studies, convening the Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Amendments Committee (CLIAC) and provides scientific & technical
support to CMS.
,• QUIZ QUESTION: CMS's mission is to assure health care security for
beneficiaries. Which of the following activities are included in CMS's
mission?.
Answer: ANSWER: CMS's mission includes all of the following: -
Regulating all laboratory testing (except research) performed on humans in
the United States - Helping millions of Americans and small companies
get-and-keep health insurance coverage with the Departments of Labor and
Treasury - Administering the State Children's Health Insurance Program
(SCHIP) with the Health Resources and Services Administration - Helping
to eliminate discrimination based on health status for people buying health
insurance.
• All residents are reviewed for which areas?.
Answer: Advanced directives, confirm specific information based on RI/RO,
other concerns .
• QUIZ QUESTION: What is the general objective of the Abuse Prohibition
Review?.
Answer: ANSWER: The general objective of the Abuse Prohibition Review
is to determine if the facility has BOTH developed & operationalized
policies & procedures that PROHIBIT 1) abuse 2) neglect 3) involuntary
seclusion 4) misappropriation of property for all residents.
• F225, Hiring, Reporting, & Investigating POLICIES Found Guilty.
Answer: Found Guilty: The guidelines define the term "found guilty" as
follows: "Found guilty... .by a court of law" applies to situations where the
defendant pleads guilty, is found guilty, or pleads nolo contendere.
• Exceptions to State Agency certifications.
Answer: - The utilization review (UR) condition - The two special
Conditions for psychiatric hospitals - Special requirements for hospital
providers on long term care services (i.e., swing beds) - A standard
promulgated by the Secretary which is a higher-than-accreditation
requirement - Any higher-than-national standards approved by the Secretary
& applied in a State
,• What are the 7 LTSCP steps?.
Answer: 1. Offsite prep 2. Facility entrance 3. Initial Pool Process 4. Sample
Selction 5.Investigation 6. Ongoing and other survey activities 7. Potential
Citations
• What are the types of interview status?.
Answer: 1. intervieable 2.Noninterviewable 3.Refused 4. Unavailable 5. Out
of facility.
• What temperature should food be re-heated to?.
Answer: 165 degrees for 15 seconds within 2 hours
• 1. wrong blood type infused 2. improper storage of blood 3. high number of
serious blood reactions 4. incorrect cross match 5. lack of monitoring.
Answer: Failure to safely administer blood products and safely monitor
organ transplantation triggers?
• What is the definition of neglect?.
Answer: failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid physical
harm, mental anguish, or mental illness
• 1. Administration of medication to an individual with a known history of
allergic reaction to that medication 2. Lack of monitoring and identification
of potential serious drug interaction, side effects, and adverse reactions 3.
Administration of contraindicated medications 4. Pattern of repeated
medication errors without intervention 5. Lack of diabetic monitoring
resulting or likely to result in serious hypoglycemia or hyperglycemic
reaction 6. Lack of timely and appropriate monitoring required for drug
titration.
Answer: Failure to protect from undue adverse medication consequences
and/or failure to provide medications as prescribed triggers
• Investigating Involuntary Seclusion.
Answer: Emergency or short term monitored separation from other residents
will not be considered involuntary seclusion. This type of separation may be
permitted if used for a limited period of time as a therapeutic intervention to
, reduce agitation until professional staff can develop a plan of care to meet
the resident's needs. Investigation of possible involuntary seclusion may
include looking into one of two possible situations: - Residents are living in
an area of the facility that restricts their freedom of movement throughout
the facility. - A resident is temporarily separated from other residents.
• Using Plain Language - The deficiency citation is written clearly,
objectively and in a manner that is easily understood..
Answer: Principles of Documentation #2
• CMS Guidance for the Composition of a Survey Team: 2 of 5 **Select
members from a variety of professions**.
Answer: Who Else The Team Should Include: Because of the strong
emphasis on resident rights, the psychosocial model of care, and
rehabilitative aspects of care in the regulations and the survey process, when
possible, the team should include: - Social workers - Registered dietitians -
Pharmacists - Activity professionals, or rehabilitation specialists
• Report Findings.
Answer: Findings are considered substantiated if any of the following
occurs: - The individual waives the right to a hearing - The time to request a
hearing has expired (120 days) - The hearing finding is that the individual
did neglect or abused a resident or misappropriated property - The
substantiated findings must be reported in writing within ten days.
• CMS Depends on Its Surveyors.
Answer: - As a surveyor, you are part of a team engaged in a process that
aims to ensure that beneficiaries receive quality health care in a safe
environment. - The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
depends on your knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and commitment
to monitor compliance with the regulatory conditions & requirements. - As a
surveyor, you are part of a team that helps to evaluate a facility's
compliance; you must show knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and
commitment; and you must base your judgments on objective findings.
• What is Extent?.
2026 QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
GRADED A+
• Significant weight loss in 1 month?.
Answer: 5% weight loss
• Severe weight loss is 3 months?.
Answer: greater than 7.5% weight loss
• What is the definition of Immediate Jeopardy?.
Answer: a situation in which the providers noncompliance with one or more
requirements of participation has caused, or is likely to cause, serious injury,
harm, impairment, or death to a resident
• Principles of Documentation #1.
Answer: Entity compliance and noncompliance -When an entity complies
with the requirements applicable to the survey conducted, the form
CMS-2567 should consist of an explicit statement that the entity is in
compliance. - If an entity does not comply with one or more applicable
requirements, the form CMS-2567 includes corresponding citations of
noncompliance
• SOM, Chapter 7: Survey & Enforcement Process of SNFs & NFs, Section
7000 NEGLECT.
Answer: Neglect is defined as the failure to provide goods & services
necessary to avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness. 42 CFR
§488.301
• Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments Committee (CLIAC).
Answer: The Centers for Disease Control & Prevention is responsible for the
CLIA studies, convening the Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Amendments Committee (CLIAC) and provides scientific & technical
support to CMS.
,• QUIZ QUESTION: CMS's mission is to assure health care security for
beneficiaries. Which of the following activities are included in CMS's
mission?.
Answer: ANSWER: CMS's mission includes all of the following: -
Regulating all laboratory testing (except research) performed on humans in
the United States - Helping millions of Americans and small companies
get-and-keep health insurance coverage with the Departments of Labor and
Treasury - Administering the State Children's Health Insurance Program
(SCHIP) with the Health Resources and Services Administration - Helping
to eliminate discrimination based on health status for people buying health
insurance.
• All residents are reviewed for which areas?.
Answer: Advanced directives, confirm specific information based on RI/RO,
other concerns .
• QUIZ QUESTION: What is the general objective of the Abuse Prohibition
Review?.
Answer: ANSWER: The general objective of the Abuse Prohibition Review
is to determine if the facility has BOTH developed & operationalized
policies & procedures that PROHIBIT 1) abuse 2) neglect 3) involuntary
seclusion 4) misappropriation of property for all residents.
• F225, Hiring, Reporting, & Investigating POLICIES Found Guilty.
Answer: Found Guilty: The guidelines define the term "found guilty" as
follows: "Found guilty... .by a court of law" applies to situations where the
defendant pleads guilty, is found guilty, or pleads nolo contendere.
• Exceptions to State Agency certifications.
Answer: - The utilization review (UR) condition - The two special
Conditions for psychiatric hospitals - Special requirements for hospital
providers on long term care services (i.e., swing beds) - A standard
promulgated by the Secretary which is a higher-than-accreditation
requirement - Any higher-than-national standards approved by the Secretary
& applied in a State
,• What are the 7 LTSCP steps?.
Answer: 1. Offsite prep 2. Facility entrance 3. Initial Pool Process 4. Sample
Selction 5.Investigation 6. Ongoing and other survey activities 7. Potential
Citations
• What are the types of interview status?.
Answer: 1. intervieable 2.Noninterviewable 3.Refused 4. Unavailable 5. Out
of facility.
• What temperature should food be re-heated to?.
Answer: 165 degrees for 15 seconds within 2 hours
• 1. wrong blood type infused 2. improper storage of blood 3. high number of
serious blood reactions 4. incorrect cross match 5. lack of monitoring.
Answer: Failure to safely administer blood products and safely monitor
organ transplantation triggers?
• What is the definition of neglect?.
Answer: failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid physical
harm, mental anguish, or mental illness
• 1. Administration of medication to an individual with a known history of
allergic reaction to that medication 2. Lack of monitoring and identification
of potential serious drug interaction, side effects, and adverse reactions 3.
Administration of contraindicated medications 4. Pattern of repeated
medication errors without intervention 5. Lack of diabetic monitoring
resulting or likely to result in serious hypoglycemia or hyperglycemic
reaction 6. Lack of timely and appropriate monitoring required for drug
titration.
Answer: Failure to protect from undue adverse medication consequences
and/or failure to provide medications as prescribed triggers
• Investigating Involuntary Seclusion.
Answer: Emergency or short term monitored separation from other residents
will not be considered involuntary seclusion. This type of separation may be
permitted if used for a limited period of time as a therapeutic intervention to
, reduce agitation until professional staff can develop a plan of care to meet
the resident's needs. Investigation of possible involuntary seclusion may
include looking into one of two possible situations: - Residents are living in
an area of the facility that restricts their freedom of movement throughout
the facility. - A resident is temporarily separated from other residents.
• Using Plain Language - The deficiency citation is written clearly,
objectively and in a manner that is easily understood..
Answer: Principles of Documentation #2
• CMS Guidance for the Composition of a Survey Team: 2 of 5 **Select
members from a variety of professions**.
Answer: Who Else The Team Should Include: Because of the strong
emphasis on resident rights, the psychosocial model of care, and
rehabilitative aspects of care in the regulations and the survey process, when
possible, the team should include: - Social workers - Registered dietitians -
Pharmacists - Activity professionals, or rehabilitation specialists
• Report Findings.
Answer: Findings are considered substantiated if any of the following
occurs: - The individual waives the right to a hearing - The time to request a
hearing has expired (120 days) - The hearing finding is that the individual
did neglect or abused a resident or misappropriated property - The
substantiated findings must be reported in writing within ten days.
• CMS Depends on Its Surveyors.
Answer: - As a surveyor, you are part of a team engaged in a process that
aims to ensure that beneficiaries receive quality health care in a safe
environment. - The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
depends on your knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and commitment
to monitor compliance with the regulatory conditions & requirements. - As a
surveyor, you are part of a team that helps to evaluate a facility's
compliance; you must show knowledge, objectivity, professionalism, and
commitment; and you must base your judgments on objective findings.
• What is Extent?.
