SMQT PACKAGED PRACTICE EXAMINATION
2026 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+
• Entity compliance and noncompliance -When an entity complies with the
requirements applicable to the survey conducted, the form CMS-2567
should consist of an explicit statement that the entity is in compliance. - If
an entity does not comply with one or more applicable requirements, the
form CMS-2567 includes corresponding citations of noncompliance.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #1
• Components of a Deficiency Citation - regulatory reference - deficient
practice statement - relevant findings.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #3
• Cross-References - Cross referencing from one citation to another is
acceptable, but each deficiency must stand by itself.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #7
• Medigap.
Answer: In 1980, coverage of home health services was broadened. As a
result, Medicare supplemental insurance- "Medigap"- was brought under
Federal oversight.
• SOM, Chapter 7: Survey & Enforcement Process of SNFs & NFs, Section
7000 ABUSE.
Answer: Abuse is defined as the willful infliction of injury, unreasonable
confinement, intimidation, or punishment with resulting physical harm,
pain, or mental anguish. 42 CFR §488.301
• Exceptions to State Agency certifications.
Answer: - The utilization review (UR) condition - The two special
Conditions for psychiatric hospitals - Special requirements for hospital
providers on long term care services (i.e., swing beds) - A standard
, promulgated by the Secretary which is a higher-than-accreditation
requirement - Any higher-than-national standards approved by the Secretary
& applied in a State
• What should you do if a resident halts the interview midway?.
Answer: Attempt to complete later, if you can't, leave the rest blank,
complete RO/RR then mark the resident as complete.
• What is investigated when more than 5 complaint/fri residents are added to
the sample?.
Answer: You will only investigate for the allegation
• Social Security Act, Section 1864(a).
Answer: Directs the Secretary of the Department of Health & Human
Services (DHHS) to use the help of state health agencies or other
appropriate agencies when determining whether health care entities meet
Federal standards. A) Functions that state agencies perform include the
following: - Identifying potential participants - Conducting investigations &
fact-finding surveys - Certifying & recertifying - Explaining requirements -
Operating toll-free home health hotline B) The state agencies (SA) are
authorized to perform numerous other functions under a blanket clause of
the state agency agreement, by exclusive agreement, or by statute. These
functions include the following: - Identifying Prospective Payment System
(PPS) excluded institutions - Participating in validation surveys of
accredited entities - Monitoring proficiency testing - Directing data entry -
Nurse Aid Training - Nurse Aide Registry - Resident Assess
• How wide must an exit corridor be?.
Answer: 8 feet
• 1. only ONE INDIVIDUAL needs to be at risk 2. SERIOUS HARM,
INJURY, IMPAIRMENT, OR DEATH does NOT HAVE TO OCCURE
BEFORE CONSIDERING immediate jeopardy. Requires HIGH potential
for those outcomes. 3. Individuals must not be subjected to abuse by
ANYONE...staff, family, visitors, volunteers 4. Serious harm can result
from both abuse and neglect 5. Psychological harm is as serious as physical
, harm 6. When a cognitively impaired individual harmed another individual
receiving care from the entity due to the entity's failure to provide care and
services to avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness, this
should be considered neglect. 7. any time a team cites abuse or neglect, it
should consider IJ.
Answer: Principals of Immediate Jeopardy
• Investigative Protocol for Abuse Prohibition: 3) Request Written Evidence.
Answer: Request Written Evidence: Request written evidence of how the
facility has handled alleged violations. Select two or three alleged violations
(if the facility has this many) since the previous standard survey or the
previous time this review has been done by the State. Determine if the
facility implemented adequate procedures for the following: - Reporting and
investigating - Protection of the resident during the investigation - The
provision of corrective action NOTE: The reporting requirements at -
§483.13(c)(2), (c)(4), F225; - specify both a report of the alleged violation
and a report of the results of the investigation to the State Survey Agency. -
You must determine if the facility re-evaluated and revised applicable
procedures as necessary.
• What is the CASPER report?.
Answer: Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Reporting
• Entity compliance and noncompliance -When an entity complies with the
requirements applicable to the survey conducted, the form CMS-2567
should consist of an explicit statement that the entity is in compliance. - If
an entity does not comply with one or more applicable requirements, the
form CMS-2567 includes corresponding citations of noncompliance.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #1
• Severe weight loss is 3 months?.
Answer: greater than 7.5% weight loss
• State Agency function-- Title XVIII, Section 1864(a): Monitoring
proficiency testing.
Answer: This function allows state agencies to monitor programs of
, proficiency testing in laboratories and contribute laboratory compliance
findings for use in the CLIA Laboratory Certification Program.
• Which residents are included in the survey shell?.
Answer: 1. Offsite selected who make up 70% of the sample 2. Residents
with at least 1 MDS in the last 120 days 3. Residents for closed record
review
• Determining Immediate Jeopardy.
Answer: Appendix Q Contains what information?
• 1. only ONE INDIVIDUAL needs to be at risk 2. SERIOUS HARM,
INJURY, IMPAIRMENT, OR DEATH does NOT HAVE TO OCCURE
BEFORE CONSIDERING immediate jeopardy. Requires HIGH potential
for those outcomes. 3. Individuals must not be subjected to abuse by
ANYONE...staff, family, visitors, volunteers 4. Serious harm can result
from both abuse and neglect 5. Psychological harm is as serious as physical
harm 6. When a cognitively impaired individual harmed another individual
receiving care from the entity due to the entity's failure to provide care and
services to avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness, this
should be considered neglect. 7. any time a team cites abuse or neglect, it
should consider IJ.
Answer: Principals of Immediate Jeopardy
• Additional exceptions to State Agency certification (1 of 2).
Answer: Federal & Indian Health Institutions: Because of questions of
intergovernmental jurisdiction, the survey and certification of a hospital or
SNF that is either owned or operated by the Indian Health Service (IHS)-
and therefore considered to be a Federal provider of services- is handled by
the CMS regional office (RO). ***The state agency is responsible for
determining whether the facility meets Medicaid certification
requirements.*** The state agency may accept Medicare certification as
sufficient evidence of meeting Medicaid requirements, or the state agency
may conduct a survey. The Indian health tribal facilities are not considered
to be Federal providers and are surveyed by the STATE AGENCY.
2026 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+
• Entity compliance and noncompliance -When an entity complies with the
requirements applicable to the survey conducted, the form CMS-2567
should consist of an explicit statement that the entity is in compliance. - If
an entity does not comply with one or more applicable requirements, the
form CMS-2567 includes corresponding citations of noncompliance.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #1
• Components of a Deficiency Citation - regulatory reference - deficient
practice statement - relevant findings.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #3
• Cross-References - Cross referencing from one citation to another is
acceptable, but each deficiency must stand by itself.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #7
• Medigap.
Answer: In 1980, coverage of home health services was broadened. As a
result, Medicare supplemental insurance- "Medigap"- was brought under
Federal oversight.
• SOM, Chapter 7: Survey & Enforcement Process of SNFs & NFs, Section
7000 ABUSE.
Answer: Abuse is defined as the willful infliction of injury, unreasonable
confinement, intimidation, or punishment with resulting physical harm,
pain, or mental anguish. 42 CFR §488.301
• Exceptions to State Agency certifications.
Answer: - The utilization review (UR) condition - The two special
Conditions for psychiatric hospitals - Special requirements for hospital
providers on long term care services (i.e., swing beds) - A standard
, promulgated by the Secretary which is a higher-than-accreditation
requirement - Any higher-than-national standards approved by the Secretary
& applied in a State
• What should you do if a resident halts the interview midway?.
Answer: Attempt to complete later, if you can't, leave the rest blank,
complete RO/RR then mark the resident as complete.
• What is investigated when more than 5 complaint/fri residents are added to
the sample?.
Answer: You will only investigate for the allegation
• Social Security Act, Section 1864(a).
Answer: Directs the Secretary of the Department of Health & Human
Services (DHHS) to use the help of state health agencies or other
appropriate agencies when determining whether health care entities meet
Federal standards. A) Functions that state agencies perform include the
following: - Identifying potential participants - Conducting investigations &
fact-finding surveys - Certifying & recertifying - Explaining requirements -
Operating toll-free home health hotline B) The state agencies (SA) are
authorized to perform numerous other functions under a blanket clause of
the state agency agreement, by exclusive agreement, or by statute. These
functions include the following: - Identifying Prospective Payment System
(PPS) excluded institutions - Participating in validation surveys of
accredited entities - Monitoring proficiency testing - Directing data entry -
Nurse Aid Training - Nurse Aide Registry - Resident Assess
• How wide must an exit corridor be?.
Answer: 8 feet
• 1. only ONE INDIVIDUAL needs to be at risk 2. SERIOUS HARM,
INJURY, IMPAIRMENT, OR DEATH does NOT HAVE TO OCCURE
BEFORE CONSIDERING immediate jeopardy. Requires HIGH potential
for those outcomes. 3. Individuals must not be subjected to abuse by
ANYONE...staff, family, visitors, volunteers 4. Serious harm can result
from both abuse and neglect 5. Psychological harm is as serious as physical
, harm 6. When a cognitively impaired individual harmed another individual
receiving care from the entity due to the entity's failure to provide care and
services to avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness, this
should be considered neglect. 7. any time a team cites abuse or neglect, it
should consider IJ.
Answer: Principals of Immediate Jeopardy
• Investigative Protocol for Abuse Prohibition: 3) Request Written Evidence.
Answer: Request Written Evidence: Request written evidence of how the
facility has handled alleged violations. Select two or three alleged violations
(if the facility has this many) since the previous standard survey or the
previous time this review has been done by the State. Determine if the
facility implemented adequate procedures for the following: - Reporting and
investigating - Protection of the resident during the investigation - The
provision of corrective action NOTE: The reporting requirements at -
§483.13(c)(2), (c)(4), F225; - specify both a report of the alleged violation
and a report of the results of the investigation to the State Survey Agency. -
You must determine if the facility re-evaluated and revised applicable
procedures as necessary.
• What is the CASPER report?.
Answer: Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Reporting
• Entity compliance and noncompliance -When an entity complies with the
requirements applicable to the survey conducted, the form CMS-2567
should consist of an explicit statement that the entity is in compliance. - If
an entity does not comply with one or more applicable requirements, the
form CMS-2567 includes corresponding citations of noncompliance.
Answer: Principles of Documentation #1
• Severe weight loss is 3 months?.
Answer: greater than 7.5% weight loss
• State Agency function-- Title XVIII, Section 1864(a): Monitoring
proficiency testing.
Answer: This function allows state agencies to monitor programs of
, proficiency testing in laboratories and contribute laboratory compliance
findings for use in the CLIA Laboratory Certification Program.
• Which residents are included in the survey shell?.
Answer: 1. Offsite selected who make up 70% of the sample 2. Residents
with at least 1 MDS in the last 120 days 3. Residents for closed record
review
• Determining Immediate Jeopardy.
Answer: Appendix Q Contains what information?
• 1. only ONE INDIVIDUAL needs to be at risk 2. SERIOUS HARM,
INJURY, IMPAIRMENT, OR DEATH does NOT HAVE TO OCCURE
BEFORE CONSIDERING immediate jeopardy. Requires HIGH potential
for those outcomes. 3. Individuals must not be subjected to abuse by
ANYONE...staff, family, visitors, volunteers 4. Serious harm can result
from both abuse and neglect 5. Psychological harm is as serious as physical
harm 6. When a cognitively impaired individual harmed another individual
receiving care from the entity due to the entity's failure to provide care and
services to avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness, this
should be considered neglect. 7. any time a team cites abuse or neglect, it
should consider IJ.
Answer: Principals of Immediate Jeopardy
• Additional exceptions to State Agency certification (1 of 2).
Answer: Federal & Indian Health Institutions: Because of questions of
intergovernmental jurisdiction, the survey and certification of a hospital or
SNF that is either owned or operated by the Indian Health Service (IHS)-
and therefore considered to be a Federal provider of services- is handled by
the CMS regional office (RO). ***The state agency is responsible for
determining whether the facility meets Medicaid certification
requirements.*** The state agency may accept Medicare certification as
sufficient evidence of meeting Medicaid requirements, or the state agency
may conduct a survey. The Indian health tribal facilities are not considered
to be Federal providers and are surveyed by the STATE AGENCY.
