BANK| ADVANCED ONCOLOGY CERTIFIED NURSE
PRACTITIONER EXAM PREP WITH COMPLETE 550 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWER
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
1. Which of the following is the most appropriate primary
prevention strategy for reducing lung cancer incidence in a 45-
year-old patient with a 30-pack-year smoking history?
A) Annual low-dose CT screening
B) Smoking cessation counseling and nicotine replacement
therapy
C) Low-dose aspirin prophylaxis
D) High-intensity interval training program
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary prevention focuses on eliminating risk
factors before disease develops. Smoking cessation is the single
most effective intervention to lower lung cancer risk, as tobacco
use causes approximately 85-90% of lung cancers. Annual low-
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,dose CT (A) is secondary prevention (early detection), while
aspirin (C) is not proven for lung cancer prevention, and
exercise (D) has no direct impact on lung cancer incidence .
2. A 52-year-old woman with a family history of ovarian
cancer (mother diagnosed at age 48) is concerned about
hereditary risk. Which genetic test is most appropriate to
order first?
A) BRCA1/BRCA2 panel
B) KRAS mutation analysis
C) EGFR mutation testing
D) BCR-ABL1 PCR
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations are strongly associated
with hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome (HBOC)
and are the first-line test for assessing hereditary risk in this
scenario. KRAS (B) and EGFR (C) are somatic mutations in
tumors, not germline hereditary risk tests. BCR-ABL (D) is for
CML diagnosis .
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,3. Which biomarker is considered predictive for response to
trastuzumab in breast cancer?
A) HER2 overexpression
B) Ki-67 proliferation index
C) PD-L1 expression
D) CA-125 level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HER2 overexpression (by IHC 3+ or FISH
amplification) predicts benefit from HER2-targeted therapies
such as trastuzumab (Herceptin). Ki-67 (B) is prognostic but not
predictive of HER2 therapy. PD-L1 (C) predicts immunotherapy
response. CA-125 (D) is a tumor marker for ovarian cancer
monitoring .
4. In the TNM staging system for colorectal cancer, what does
"T3" indicate?
A) Tumor invades submucosa only
B) Tumor penetrates through the muscularis propria into
pericolorectal tissues
C) Tumor involves adjacent organ(s)
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, D) Tumor limited to the mucosa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: T3 denotes extension through the muscularis propria
into pericolorectal fat without invasion of adjacent organs. T1
invades submucosa, T2 invades muscularis propria, and T4
invades adjacent organs or structures .
5. A 28-year-old patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is scheduled
for autologous stem cell transplantation. Which phase follows
the conditioning regimen?
A) Engraftment phase
B) Mobilization phase
C) Harvest phase
D) Conditioning phase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After high-dose chemotherapy (conditioning), the
engraftment phase begins when infused stem cells home to the
bone marrow and begin hematopoiesis. Mobilization (B) and
harvest (C) occur before conditioning .
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