ATI RN CONCEPT-BASED ASSESSMENT LEVEL 1
PROCTORED EXAMS LATEST 2026 PACKAGE DEAL|
DIFFERENT VERSIONS WITH COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client with hypokalemia. Which of
the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B) Muscle weakness and fatigue
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Tented skin turgor
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) commonly causes muscle
weakness, fatigue, and leg cramps. Hyperactive reflexes are
seen with hypocalcemia or hyperkalemia.
1
,Q2: A client with heart failure has crackles in both lung bases
and an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer furosemide
B) Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
C) Notify the provider
D) Increase oxygen to 4 L/min via nasal cannula
Answer: B
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position promotes lung expansion and
reduces venous return, improving oxygenation. This is an
immediate, non-invasive intervention before other actions.
Q3: Which of the following clients is at highest risk for
developing a pressure injury?
A) A client who ambulates three times daily
B) A client with urinary incontinence who is repositioned every 2
hours
C) A client who is malnourished and bedridden
D) A client with a BMI of 30
Answer: C
Rationale: Malnutrition reduces tissue repair capacity; immobility
2
,increases pressure duration. This combination creates highest risk
for pressure injury development.
Q4: A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus about
foot care. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A) “I will soak my feet daily to keep them soft.”
B) “I will use a heating pad to warm cold feet.”
C) “I will trim my own corns and calluses.”
D) “I will wear cotton socks and well-fitting shoes.”
Answer: D
Rationale: Cotton socks wick moisture, and proper footwear
prevents injury. Soaking causes maceration, heating pads risk
burns, and self-trimming can cause wounds.
Q5: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Which
oxygen delivery device is most appropriate?
A) Simple face mask at 6 L/min
B) Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
3
, C) Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
D) Venturi mask at 40% FiO₂
Answer: C
Rationale: Nasal cannula at low flow (1-3 L/min) is appropriate
for COPD clients to avoid suppressing hypoxic drive.
Q6: A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume
excess. Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A) Decreased blood pressure
B) Flat neck veins
C) Bounding peripheral pulses
D) Dry mucous membranes
Answer: C
Rationale: Fluid volume excess causes bounding pulses, jugular
vein distention, hypertension, and edema.
Q7: A client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) aPTT
4
PROCTORED EXAMS LATEST 2026 PACKAGE DEAL|
DIFFERENT VERSIONS WITH COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client with hypokalemia. Which of
the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B) Muscle weakness and fatigue
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Tented skin turgor
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) commonly causes muscle
weakness, fatigue, and leg cramps. Hyperactive reflexes are
seen with hypocalcemia or hyperkalemia.
1
,Q2: A client with heart failure has crackles in both lung bases
and an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer furosemide
B) Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
C) Notify the provider
D) Increase oxygen to 4 L/min via nasal cannula
Answer: B
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position promotes lung expansion and
reduces venous return, improving oxygenation. This is an
immediate, non-invasive intervention before other actions.
Q3: Which of the following clients is at highest risk for
developing a pressure injury?
A) A client who ambulates three times daily
B) A client with urinary incontinence who is repositioned every 2
hours
C) A client who is malnourished and bedridden
D) A client with a BMI of 30
Answer: C
Rationale: Malnutrition reduces tissue repair capacity; immobility
2
,increases pressure duration. This combination creates highest risk
for pressure injury development.
Q4: A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus about
foot care. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A) “I will soak my feet daily to keep them soft.”
B) “I will use a heating pad to warm cold feet.”
C) “I will trim my own corns and calluses.”
D) “I will wear cotton socks and well-fitting shoes.”
Answer: D
Rationale: Cotton socks wick moisture, and proper footwear
prevents injury. Soaking causes maceration, heating pads risk
burns, and self-trimming can cause wounds.
Q5: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Which
oxygen delivery device is most appropriate?
A) Simple face mask at 6 L/min
B) Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
3
, C) Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
D) Venturi mask at 40% FiO₂
Answer: C
Rationale: Nasal cannula at low flow (1-3 L/min) is appropriate
for COPD clients to avoid suppressing hypoxic drive.
Q6: A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume
excess. Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A) Decreased blood pressure
B) Flat neck veins
C) Bounding peripheral pulses
D) Dry mucous membranes
Answer: C
Rationale: Fluid volume excess causes bounding pulses, jugular
vein distention, hypertension, and edema.
Q7: A client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) aPTT
4
