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BSN 266 HESI Exam Latest 2026/2027 Update | Complete Test Bank with Verified Questions and Answers and Detailed Rationales | Medical-Surgical Nursing | Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Endocrine, GI, Renal, Hematologic, Neurologic Disorders | A+ Graded | 100%

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This comprehensive EXAM resource for the BSN 266 HESI Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam covers all essential clinical domains for the 2026/2027 academic year at Nightingale College . It features validated exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales, including Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) case scenarios and multiple-choice questions . Targeted topics include cardiovascular disorders (heart failure, hypertension, myocardial infarction, cardiac stents) , respiratory conditions (COPD, pneumonia, tuberculosis, lung cancer, pleurodesis) , endocrine disorders (diabetes mellitus, thyroid disease) , gastrointestinal conditions (peptic ulcer disease, Crohn's disease, bleeding) , renal and genitourinary disorders (kidney stones, prostatitis, BPH, dialysis) , hematologic disorders (thrombocytopenia, lymphoma) , and neurologic conditions (stroke, seizure) . Additional content includes oncology, fluid/electrolyte balance, infectious disease, perioperative care, and pharmacology. BSN 266 HESI MED SURG EXAM – COMPLETE Q&A REVIEW Source: HESI Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam content (Nightingale College). Examination measures analytical reasoning, professional judgment, and practical application through 100 evidence-based scenarios across eight professional domains . CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS Q1: A client who underwent cardiac stent placement 4 days ago arrives to the emergency department reporting sudden onset chest pressure and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse take next? a) Administer prescribed nitroglycerin sublingually. b) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and begin continuous cardiac monitoring. c) Give oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. d) Prepare the client for immediate cardiac catheterization. Correct Answer: b) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and begin continuous cardiac monitoring Rationale: A client with sudden chest pressure and shortness of breath after recent stenting is at high risk for acute stent thrombosis or myocardial infarction (MI). Immediate acquisition of a 12-lead ECG is critical to assess for ischemic changes and to prioritize timely reperfusion therapy if needed . Continuous cardiac monitoring is essential to detect arrhythmias. Q2: Identify the electrocardiographic finding that is most specific for a transmural myocardial infarction, reflecting necrosis of the full thickness of the ventricular wall. a) ST segment depression b) T wave inversion c) Pathologic Q waves d) U waves Correct Answer: c) Pathologic Q waves Rationale: Pathologic Q waves are the most specific ECG finding for transmural MI, indicating full-thickness myocardial necrosis . ST elevation is characteristic of acute injury, while Q waves indicate established infarction. Q3: A client with heart failure is classified as having systolic dysfunction. Which hemodynamic alteration is characteristic of this condition? a) Increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume with reduced ejection fraction b) Decreased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure with normal ejection fraction c) Elevated systemic vascular resistance with preserved stroke volume d) Decreased left atrial pressure with increased cardiac output Correct Answer: a) Increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume with reduced ejection fraction Rationale: Systolic failure reduces contractility, causing increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume and pressure while ejection fraction falls . This leads to volume overload, pulmonary congestion, and reduced cardiac output. Q4: A client arrives with chest pain radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. Which medication should the nurse anticipate after HCP assessment? a) Aspirin b) Nitroglycerin c) Atorvastatin d) Morphine Correct Answer: d) Morphine

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BSN 266 HESI Updated: Comprehensive Medical-Surgical Nursing
Review (Latest 2026/2027 Update) | Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct
(Verified Answers) – Nursing Program

Subject: BSN 266 HESI – COPD, MS, TURP, Graves Disease, Meningitis, DM Complications,
Cirrhosis, Stroke, Skin Cancer, Post-Op Care, Glomerulonephritis, Nephrectomy, Lithotripsy,
Crohn's, Pheochromocytoma, Diabetes Insipidus, Fracture Assessment, Pre-op Care, PUD,
Herpes Zoster, AAA, AKI, Raynaud's, Cataract, Ciprofloxacin, Degenerative Joint Disease, SLE,
Ulna Fracture, Parkinson's, Right Heart Failure, Thoracentesis, Spinal Cord Injury, NGN Cases
(Liver Disorder, Folic Acid Deficiency, DVT, BPH, Gallstones)
Source: HESI Comprehensive Review / Medical-Surgical Nursing / NGN Practice
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale | 100% Verified


1: An older adult client with a long history of COPD is admitted with progressive shortness
of breath, persistent cough, anxiety, and dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse
implement?
Correct Answer: B. Assist client to an upright position

1. Upright position optimizes diaphragmatic excursion and lung expansion.
2. High Fowler's position reduces work of breathing; priority before fluids or sedatives.

2: A client with multiple sclerosis reports fatigue, muscle weakness, and diplopia. Which
actions reduce fall risk? (SATA)
Correct Answer: A. Provide assistance to bedside commode; C. Schedule frequent rest periods; E.
Teach to patch one eye while walking

1. Patching one eye reduces diplopia and improves depth perception.
2. Frequent rest periods conserve energy; assisted mobility prevents falls.

3: A client after MVA has increasing dyspnea and absent breath sounds on left side. Which
procedure should the nurse prepare for?
Correct Answer: B. Chest tube insertion

1. Absent breath sounds after trauma suggests pneumothorax or hemothorax.
2. Chest tube re-expands lung and drains air/blood.

4: Following TURP, a client is discharged with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
instruction is most important?
Correct Answer: B. Drink 3 liters of water each day

1. High fluid intake flushes clots and prevents catheter obstruction.
2. Crucial to maintain urine output and prevent infection.

, 5: An adult woman with Graves disease is admitted with severe dehydration, malnutrition,
restlessness, and refusing to eat. Which action is most important?
Correct Answer: C. Maintain a patent intravenous site

1. Severe dehydration and malnutrition require IV access for fluids and nutrition.
2. Thyroid storm risk; IV access for medications and hydration is priority.

6: A client reports burning on urination after sexual intercourse with a casual acquaintance
4 days ago. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture

1. Urethral discharge culture identifies gonorrhea or chlamydia.
2. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is gold standard.

7: A client admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which diagnostic procedure
should the nurse prepare for?
Correct Answer: A. Lumbar puncture

1. LP obtains CSF for cell count, protein, glucose, and culture.
2. Definitive diagnosis of meningitis.

8: An older adult with long-term type 2 DM is seen for routine health assessment. Which
assessments determine long-term complications? (SATA)
Correct Answer: A. Sensation in feet and legs; B. Skin condition of lower extremities; C. Visual acuity;
D. Serum creatinine and BUN

1. Monofilament test for neuropathy; skin checks for ulcers.
2. Dilated eye exam for retinopathy; BUN/Cr for nephropathy.

9: A client with cirrhosis has 4+ pitting edema and massive ascites. Which mechanism
contributes to edema and ascites?
Correct Answer: B. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure

1. Liver damage decreases albumin synthesis → low oncotic pressure.
2. Fluid leaks from vessels into interstitial space and peritoneal cavity.

10: An older adult client with expressive aphasia (Broca's) after CVA becomes frustrated.
Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A. Encourage client's use of picture charts

1. Picture charts and communication boards facilitate expression.
2. Reduces frustration when verbal output is impaired.

11: Which client has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?
Correct Answer: B. A 65 year old fair skinned client who works as a construction worker

1. Fair skin + chronic sun exposure = highest risk for melanoma and non-melanoma skin cancers.
2. Cumulative UV exposure is major risk factor.

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