ATPL - RADIO TELECOMMUNICATION Exam Rated A+ (Verified)

ATPL - RADIO TELECOMMUNICATION Exam Rated A+ (Verified) When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight? A) When passing 12,500 feet MSL. B) Only when ATC requests Mode C. C) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC. - Answer- C) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC. During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should A) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. B) wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency. C) contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration - Answer- A) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. What does declaring "minimum fuel'' to ATC imply? A) Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur. B) Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. C) Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport. - Answer- A) Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur. When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight? A) Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace. B) Any time. C) Only if an emergency occurs. - Answer- A) Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace. For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways? A) Fixes selected to define the route. B) There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC. C) At the changeover points. - Answer- A) Fixes selected to define the route. For which speed variation should you notify ATC? A) When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots. B) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater. C) Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH. - Answer- B) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater. How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field? A) The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight. B) You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility. C) Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility. - Answer- C) Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility. An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED...'' will always contain the name A) and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan. B) of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. C) of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment. - Answer- B) of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET'' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to A) vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. B) climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance. C) use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude. - Answer- A) vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact? A) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach. B) Entering instrument meteorological conditions. C) Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes. - Answer- A) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach. Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR? A) Special VFR to VFR Over the Top. B) To VFR on Top. C) VFR Over the Top. - Answer- B) To VFR on Top. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''? A) It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. B) The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. C) The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC. - Answer- A) It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request? A) DP's, STAR's, and contact approaches. B) Contact and visual approaches. C) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches. - Answer- C) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This phrase means that A) you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. B) you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation. C) radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports. - Answer- B) you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.