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HONDROS NUR 200 QUIZ 1 | Answered | Nursing Fundamentals | Hondros College | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass HONDROS NUR 200 Quiz 1 on your first attempt with this comprehensive guide featuring all questions answered correctly! This A+ Graded resource for Hondros College NUR 200 Nursing Fundamentals Quiz 1 contains verified questions with correct answers covering all essential nursing fundamentals concepts required for quiz success. Featuring comprehensive coverage of the nursing process (ADPIE: Assessment (subjective vs objective data collection, primary vs secondary sources), Diagnosis (NANDA-I taxonomy, three-part PES statement), Planning (SMART goals, priority setting using Maslow's hierarchy and ABCs), Implementation (direct vs indirect care, five rights of delegation), Evaluation (goal attainment, outcome documentation)), critical thinking and clinical judgment (Tanner's clinical judgment model (noticing, interpreting, responding, reflecting), problem-solving methods), patient safety (National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs) for hospitals : identify patients correctly (two identifiers), improve staff communication (SBAR: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), use medicines safely (medication reconciliation, high-alert medications), prevent infection (hand hygiene WHO five moments, CAUTI and CLABSI prevention bundles), identify patient safety risks (fall risk assessment (Morse Scale, Hendrich II), fall prevention interventions (bed alarm, low bed, non-slip socks, hourly rounding), pressure injury prevention (Braden Scale, repositioning every 2 hours), suicide risk screening (C-SSRS, PHQ-9 item 9)), medication administration (six rights of medication administration (right patient (two identifiers), right drug (look-alike sound-alike precautions), right dose (weight-based dosing), right route (oral, IM, IV, subcutaneous), right time (frequency, peak/trough timing), right documentation), medication calculations (desired over have method, ratio and proportion, dimensional analysis, IV drip rate (gtt/min), infusion pump rate (mL/hr)), medication safety practices (high-alert medication independent double-check, tall man lettering, barcode scanning, error reporting (incident report)), infection control (chain of infection (infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host), standard precautions (hand hygiene, PPE (gloves, gown, mask, eye protection), safe injection practices, respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette), transmission-based precautions (contact precautions (private room, gloves and gown), droplet precautions (surgical mask within 3 feet, eye protection), airborne precautions (N95 respirator, airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) with negative pressure)), medical and surgical asepsis (sterile technique for invasive procedures, sterile field maintenance), wound care (wound assessment (location, size, tunneling, undermining, wound bed tissue type (granulation, slough, eschar, epithelial), exudate type (serous, serosanguineous, sanguineous, purulent), periwound condition), dressing types (gauze, transparent film, foam, alginate, hydrocolloid, hydrogel, antimicrobial dressings (silver, honey)), negative pressure wound therapy (VAC device, indications, contraindications, nursing care)), infection signs and symptoms (local: erythema, edema, warmth, purulent drainage, systemic: fever, chills, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, leukocytosis, sepsis criteria (qSOFA, SIRS)), vital signs measurement and interpretation (temperature (oral, axillary, tympanic, temporal, rectal ranges, fever, hyperpyrexia, hypothermia), pulse (rate 60-100 bpm adults, rhythm regular vs irregular, amplitude (strong, weak, thready), capillary refill 2 seconds), respirations (rate 12-20 bpm adults, depth (shallow, normal, deep), rhythm (regular, irregular, Cheyne-Stokes, Biot's), work of breathing (nasal flaring, retractions, accessory muscle use, stridor)), blood pressure (systolic normal 120 mmHg, diastolic normal 80 mmHg, pulse pressure 30-50 mmHg, orthostatic hypotension (decrease SBP 20 mmHg or DBP 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing)), pulse oximetry (SpO2 target 95-100%, factors affecting accuracy (nail polish, edema, hypotension, anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning (falsely normal), methemoglobinemia (SpO2 plateau 80-85%))), pain assessment (PQRSTU method (Provocation/palliation, Quality, Region/radiation, Severity 0-10 scale, Timing), pain scales (Wong-Baker FACES, FLACC, PAINAD)), it provides the exact practice needed to master the official Hondros NUR 200 Quiz 1. With detailed rationales, nursing process frameworks, patient safety protocols, medication administration guidelines, infection control procedures, vital signs interpretation, and our Pass Guarantee, this is the definitive tool for Hondros College nursing students seeking top scores on their Nursing Fundamentals Quiz 1. Download now and excel in your NUR 200 course with confidence!

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​HONDROS NUR 200 QUIZ 1 |​
​Answered | Nursing​
​Fundamentals | Hondros College |​
​Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded​
​## [DOMAIN 1: NURSING PROCESS (ADPIE) & CRITICAL THINKING - 25 Questions]​

*​ *1. What is the primary purpose of the nursing process?**​
​A) To document patient care for legal protection​
​B) To provide a systematic, problem-solving approach to patient care​
​C) To assign tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel​
​D) To reduce healthcare costs​
​**Rationale:** The nursing process is a systematic, client-centered, goal-directed method for​
​planning, implementing, and evaluating care. It originated in 1955 and guides all nursing actions​
​to ensure quality outcomes .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *2. Which of the following is the FIRST step of the nursing process (ADPIE)?**​
​A) Diagnosis​
​B) Planning​
​C) Assessment​
​D) Implementation​
​**Rationale:** Assessment is the first phase, involving continuous data collection from the​
​moment the nurse meets the patient. It includes gathering both subjective and objective data .​
​**C) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *3. A nurse is gathering information from a patient who states, "I feel dizzy and nauseated."​
​This is an example of:**​
​A) Objective data​
​B) Secondary data​
​C) Subjective data​
​D) Tertiary data​
​**Rationale:** Subjective data includes symptoms, feelings, and perceptions that the patient​
​describes and cannot be observed through the nurse's senses .​
​**C) [CORRECT]**​

,*​ *4. During physical examination, the nurse observes a patient's skin rash and documents a​
​blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. This represents:**​
​A) Subjective data​
​B) Objective data​
​C) Primary source data​
​D) Both B and C​
​**Rationale:** Objective data consists of observable, measurable signs (rash, BP reading). Data​
​obtained directly from the patient or through nurse observation is primary source data .​
​**D) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *5. The nurse uses the NANDA-I taxonomy to:**​
​A) Prescribe medications​
​B) Formulate nursing diagnoses​
​C) Bill insurance companies​
​D) Schedule patient procedures​
​**Rationale:** NANDA-I provides standardized nursing diagnosis language. A nursing diagnosis​
​is a clinical judgment about human responses to health conditions, distinct from medical​
​diagnoses .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *6. A proper three-part nursing diagnosis statement includes:**​
​A) Problem, medical diagnosis, physician orders​
​B) Problem (NANDA label), etiology, defining characteristics​
​C) Medication, dose, frequency​
​D) Vital signs, lab values, symptoms​
​**Rationale:** The PES format states: Problem (P) related to etiology (E) as evidenced by​
​signs/symptoms (S). Example: Impaired physical mobility related to incisional pain as evidenced​
​by restricted turning .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *7. During the Planning phase, goals must be:**​
​A) Vague and flexible​
​B) Determined solely by the physician​
​C) SMART (Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound)​
​D) Long-term only​
​**Rationale:** SMART goals ensure outcomes are measurable and achievable. Example:​
​"Patient will ambulate 50 feet with assistance by discharge" .​
​**C) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *8. Which of the following is an independent nursing intervention?**​
​A) Administering prescribed morphine​
​B) Inserting a Foley catheter per physician order​
​C) Teaching a patient about deep breathing exercises​

,​ ) Initiating IV fluids per protocol​
D
​**Rationale:** Independent interventions require no supervision or physician order. Patient​
​teaching falls within the nurse's autonomous scope of practice .​
​**C) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *9. A dependent nursing intervention requires:**​
​A) No supervision​
​B) A physician's order or supervision​
​C) Patient consent only​
​D) Institutional policy only​
​**Rationale:** Dependent interventions (e.g., medication administration, invasive procedures)​
​require specific orders from authorized providers .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *10. The final step of the nursing process involves:**​
​A) Discharging the patient​
​B) Evaluating whether goals were met​
​C) Writing the care plan​
​D) Obtaining vital signs​
​**Rationale:** Evaluation determines effectiveness of care, allows care plan revision, and may​
​lead to discontinuing or modifying interventions based on patient response .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *11. Critical thinking in nursing is best defined as:**​
​A) Memorizing textbook information​
​B) Purposeful, outcome-directed thinking driven by patient needs​
​C) Following physician orders without question​
​D) Avoiding complex patient situations​
​**Rationale:** Critical thinking involves active, organized cognitive processes including​
​recognizing issues, analyzing information, evaluating data, and making conclusions .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *12. Which component is NOT one of the five elements of critical thinking in nursing?**​
​A) Knowledge base​
​B) Experience​
​C) Emotional reactivity​
​D) Nursing process competencies​
​**Rationale:** The five components are: knowledge base, experience, nursing process​
​competencies, attitudes (confidence, fairness, humility), and intellectual/professional standards .​
​**C) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *13. Tanner's Clinical Judgment Model includes which four domains?**​
​A) Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation​
​B) Noticing, Interpreting, Responding, Reflecting​

, ​ ) Admission, Treatment, Discharge, Follow-up​
C
​D) Safety, Quality, Leadership, Professionalism​
​**Rationale:** Tanner's model describes how nurses develop clinical judgment through noticing​
​(identifying cues), interpreting (making sense of data), responding (taking action), and reflecting​
​(evaluating outcomes) .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *14. A novice nurse uses theoretical knowledge to make hypotheses about patient care. This​
​describes:**​
​A) Intuitive reasoning​
​B) Analytic reasoning​
​C) Narrative reasoning​
​D) Reflective reasoning​
​**Rationale:** Analytic reasoning involves deliberate, step-by-step analysis based on theoretical​
​knowledge. Intuitive reasoning is pattern-based and typical of expert nurses .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *15. Evidence-based practice (EBP) integrates:**​
​A) Nurse preference only​
​B) Best research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient values​
​C) Cost containment strategies​
​D) Physician orders exclusively​
​**Rationale:** EBP combines the best available research with clinical expertise and patient​
​characteristics/preferences to optimize outcomes .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *16. A nurse clusters data about a patient's elevated temperature, increased heart rate, and​
​flushed skin to identify a pattern. This is called:**​
​A) Implementation​
​B) Data interpretation​
​C) Diagnostic reasoning​
​D) Both B and C​
​**Rationale:** Clustering related information and recognizing patterns are key steps in​
​diagnostic reasoning, which leads to accurate nursing diagnoses .​
​**D) [CORRECT]**​

*​ *17. Which term describes taking something for granted without supporting evidence?**​
​A) Inference​
​B) Assumption​
​C) Cue​
​D) Validation​
​**Rationale:** Identifying assumptions is part of the "noticing" phase in Tanner's model. Nurses​
​must recognize when they are making unsupported conclusions .​
​**B) [CORRECT]**​

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