1
Rasmussen College MDC2 Exam 1 Questions and
Answers Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Cardiovascular Disorders — Questions 1-18]
Q1: A client with heart failure reports increasing dyspnea at night. The nurse recognizes this
symptom as:
A. Orthopnea.
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
C. Dyspnea on exertion.
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) involves sudden awakening from sleep with
shortness of breath, often requiring the client to sit up or stand to relieve the symptom.
Orthopnea (Choice A) is shortness of breath when lying flat but relieved by elevating the head;
while related, PND is a more severe symptom indicating worsening heart failure. Dyspnea on
exertion (Choice C) is an earlier stage.
Q2: A client diagnosed with angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat).
The nurse instructs the client to place the tablet where?
A. Under the tongue and swallow immediately with water.
B. Between the cheek and gum.
C. Under the tongue and allow it to dissolve; do not swallow.
D. On top of the tongue.
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is absorbed through the oral mucosa. The client should place
the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve completely for maximum absorption;
swallowing it prematurely reduces its effectiveness significantly. Choice B is for buccal
medications (like Fentanyl lozenges), which have a different absorption profile.
Q3: When assessing a client for pericarditis, the nurse expects to hear which type of friction rub?
A. Pleural friction rub.
B. Pericardial friction rub.
C. Aortic murmur.
D. Mitral murmur.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a scratchy, grating sound heard on auscultation, caused by
the rubbing of inflamed pericardial layers against each other. A pleural friction rub (Choice A)
sounds like pleura rubbing together (e.g., dry crackles) and is heard over the lungs.
Q4: A client with acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is experiencing severe anxiety. The nurse
anticipates administering morphine sulfate. Which effect indicates the primary therapeutic action
in this context?
A. Reducing preload and afterload.
B. Treating anxiety.
C. Preventing arrhythmias.
D. Increasing heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: While morphine is an anxiolytic and analgesic, its primary hemodynamic benefit in
AMI is vasodilation. This causes venodilation (reduces preload) and arteriolar dilation (reduces
afterload), which decreases the workload of the heart and myocardial oxygen demand.
, 3
Q5: Which medication is classified as an antiplatelet agent and is essential for preventing
thrombus formation in clients with coronary artery disease?
A. Heparin.
B. Warfarin (Coumadin).
C. Aspirin (ASA).
D. Clopidogrel (Plavix).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, making it a cornerstone of antiplatelet therapy
for preventing coronary artery thrombosis. While clopidogrel (Choice D) is also an antiplatelet,
aspirin is the most fundamental and widely recognized answer for this context. Heparin (Choice
A) and Warfarin (Choice B) are anticoagulants.
Q6: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor closely?
A. Potassium.
B. Sodium.
C. Calcium.
D. Magnesium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of sodium, water, and
potassium. Hypokalemia (low potassium) is a common and dangerous side effect that can lead to
life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias; therefore, potassium levels must be monitored closely.
Q7: A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. The nurse teaches the client about post-
procedure care. Which statement indicates the client understands?
A. "I will keep my leg straight for 4 hours."
B. "I will drink plenty of water before I come back to the unit."
C. "I will expect to see a large amount of bruising on my back where I lay."
Rasmussen College MDC2 Exam 1 Questions and
Answers Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Cardiovascular Disorders — Questions 1-18]
Q1: A client with heart failure reports increasing dyspnea at night. The nurse recognizes this
symptom as:
A. Orthopnea.
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
C. Dyspnea on exertion.
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) involves sudden awakening from sleep with
shortness of breath, often requiring the client to sit up or stand to relieve the symptom.
Orthopnea (Choice A) is shortness of breath when lying flat but relieved by elevating the head;
while related, PND is a more severe symptom indicating worsening heart failure. Dyspnea on
exertion (Choice C) is an earlier stage.
Q2: A client diagnosed with angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat).
The nurse instructs the client to place the tablet where?
A. Under the tongue and swallow immediately with water.
B. Between the cheek and gum.
C. Under the tongue and allow it to dissolve; do not swallow.
D. On top of the tongue.
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is absorbed through the oral mucosa. The client should place
the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve completely for maximum absorption;
swallowing it prematurely reduces its effectiveness significantly. Choice B is for buccal
medications (like Fentanyl lozenges), which have a different absorption profile.
Q3: When assessing a client for pericarditis, the nurse expects to hear which type of friction rub?
A. Pleural friction rub.
B. Pericardial friction rub.
C. Aortic murmur.
D. Mitral murmur.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a scratchy, grating sound heard on auscultation, caused by
the rubbing of inflamed pericardial layers against each other. A pleural friction rub (Choice A)
sounds like pleura rubbing together (e.g., dry crackles) and is heard over the lungs.
Q4: A client with acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is experiencing severe anxiety. The nurse
anticipates administering morphine sulfate. Which effect indicates the primary therapeutic action
in this context?
A. Reducing preload and afterload.
B. Treating anxiety.
C. Preventing arrhythmias.
D. Increasing heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: While morphine is an anxiolytic and analgesic, its primary hemodynamic benefit in
AMI is vasodilation. This causes venodilation (reduces preload) and arteriolar dilation (reduces
afterload), which decreases the workload of the heart and myocardial oxygen demand.
, 3
Q5: Which medication is classified as an antiplatelet agent and is essential for preventing
thrombus formation in clients with coronary artery disease?
A. Heparin.
B. Warfarin (Coumadin).
C. Aspirin (ASA).
D. Clopidogrel (Plavix).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, making it a cornerstone of antiplatelet therapy
for preventing coronary artery thrombosis. While clopidogrel (Choice D) is also an antiplatelet,
aspirin is the most fundamental and widely recognized answer for this context. Heparin (Choice
A) and Warfarin (Choice B) are anticoagulants.
Q6: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor closely?
A. Potassium.
B. Sodium.
C. Calcium.
D. Magnesium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of sodium, water, and
potassium. Hypokalemia (low potassium) is a common and dangerous side effect that can lead to
life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias; therefore, potassium levels must be monitored closely.
Q7: A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. The nurse teaches the client about post-
procedure care. Which statement indicates the client understands?
A. "I will keep my leg straight for 4 hours."
B. "I will drink plenty of water before I come back to the unit."
C. "I will expect to see a large amount of bruising on my back where I lay."
