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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor & HESI Exit Exam | 380 NGN Questions & Bold Rationales

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This comprehensive study resource features 380 high-yield multiple-choice questions meticulously designed to mirror the difficulty of the ATI Comprehensive Predictor and HESI Exit Exams. Every question includes a correct answer in bold italics followed by a detailed clinical rationale covering high-frequency topics such as Pediatrics, Maternity, Pharmacology, and Advanced Med-Surg. It is an essential tool for nursing students seeking to achieve a Level 3 proficiency and master Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) prioritization and risk reduction strategies.

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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

Comprehensive Nursing Mastery 350 Exam Questions &
Detailed Answers

This high-yield study bank features 350 comprehensive multiple-choice questions
designed for the General Nursing (GEN), Medical-Surgical, and Nursing
Fundamentals exams. Each question includes the correct answer in bold italics,
covering essential topics such as ABCDE prioritization, pharmacology (antidotes
and side effects), fluid & electrolytes, and ethical principles like Veracity and
Beneficence. This resource is an essential tool for nursing students seeking a
Grade A on their proctored assessments and preparing for the Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN).




1. Which heart sound is commonly referred to as the "ventricular gallop" and can indicate
fluid overload?
o A. S1
o B. S2
o C. S3
o D. S4
2. A nurse is assessing a client for orthostatic hypotension. A positive sign is a drop in
systolic blood pressure of at least:
o A. 10 mmHg
o B. 20 mmHg
o C. 5 mmHg
o D. 30 mmHg
3. Which site is considered the most accurate for measuring a "core" body temperature?
o A. Axillary
o B. Oral
o C. Rectal
o D. Tympanic
4. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute in an adult is documented as:
o A. Tachypnea
o B. Bradypnea
o C. Eupnea
o D. Apnea

,5. What is the priority assessment for a client with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of
7?
o A. Skin integrity
o B. Airway patency (Intubation risk)
o C. Urine output
o D. Nutritional status




Section 2: Fluids, Electrolytes & Acid-Base
6. A client has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which EKG change is most likely?
o A. Prominent U-waves
o B. ST-segment depression
o C. Tall, peaked T-waves
o D. Prolonged QT interval
7. Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm) is a clinical indicator of which imbalance?
o A. Hypernatremia
o B. Hypocalcemia
o C. Hypokalemia
o D. Hypermagnesemia
8. Which intravenous fluid is considered isotonic?
o A. 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline)
o B. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
o C. 3% Sodium Chloride
o D. 10% Dextrose in Water
9. A client’s ABG results are: pH 7.30, PaCO2 52, HCO3 26. This indicates:
o A. Respiratory Acidosis
o B. Metabolic Acidosis
o C. Respiratory Alkalosis
o D. Metabolic Alkalosis
10. What is the primary compensatory organ for metabolic acid-base imbalances?
o A. The Kidneys
o B. The Lungs
o C. The Liver
o D. The Heart




Section 3: Pharmacology & Safety
11. What is the specific antidote for a Heparin overdose?
o A. Vitamin K
o B. Protamine Sulfate

, o C. Acetylcysteine
o D. Flumazenil
12. A client is taking Warfarin (Coumadin). Which lab value must be monitored?
o A. aPTT
o B. PT/INR
o C. Hemoglobin
o D. Serum Creatinine
13. Before administering Digoxin, the nurse must check the apical pulse for 1 full minute
and hold the dose if the heart rate is less than:
o A. 100 bpm
o B. 80 bpm
o C. 60 bpm
o D. 50 bpm
14. Which medication is the first-line treatment for an acute asthma attack?
o A. Albuterol (Short-acting beta agonist)
o B. Salmeterol
o C. Prednisone
o D. Fluticasone
15. In the RACE fire safety acronym, what does the "C" stand for?
o A. Call for help
o B. Confine/Contain the fire
o C. Carry the patient
o D. Clear the hallway




Section 4: Medical-Surgical Nursing
16. A nurse notes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube. This
indicates:
o A. The lung has fully re-expanded
o B. An air leak in the system
o C. Normal suctioning function
o D. The system is clogged
17. What is the priority intervention for a client experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?
o A. Lower the head of the bed
o B. Sit the client upright and check the bladder
o C. Administer a sedative
o D. Increase IV fluid rate
18. A "non-blanchable" reddened area on the sacrum is classified as:
o A. Stage 1 pressure injury
o B. Stage 2 pressure injury
o C. Stage 3 pressure injury
o D. Deep tissue injury
19. Which lab value is the most sensitive indicator of long-term (3 month) glucose control?

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