ATI HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 1, EXAM
2 & FINAL EXAM 300 Questions with 100%
Verified Answers & Rationales Latest 2025/2026
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EXAM 1: FOUNDATIONS & GENERAL ASSESSMENT
(Questions 1–100)
1. Which of the following is the first step in the nursing health assessment
process?
A. Physical examination
B. Collection of subjective data (health history)
C. Documentation
D. Analysis of data
Rationale: The nursing process begins with assessment. Subjective data collection
(interview/health history) is the initial step, followed by objective data (physical exam).
Analysis and documentation follow.
2. A nurse is performing a comprehensive health assessment on an adult client.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Measure vital signs
B. Establish a therapeutic relationship and explain the purpose of the assessment
C. Perform a head-to-toe physical examination
D. Review laboratory results
Rationale: Establishing rapport and explaining the process reduces anxiety, promotes
cooperation, and sets the stage for accurate data collection.
3. Which of the following is an example of subjective data?
A. Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
B. “I feel nauseated and dizzy.”
C. Heart rate 88 beats per minute
D. Lungs clear to auscultation
,Rationale: Subjective data are the client’s verbal description of symptoms, sensations,
or concerns. Objective data are measurable and observable (vital signs, physical exam
findings).
4. A nurse notes that a client’s skin is warm to the touch. This is an example of:
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data
C. Secondary data
D. Interpreted data
Rationale: Objective data are collected through observation, palpation, percussion, and
auscultation. The nurse’s finding is an objective measurement.
5. During the interview, the nurse asks, “What brought you to the hospital today?”
This is an example of:
A. Direct question
B. Open-ended question
C. Closed-ended question
D. Leading question
Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage the client to elaborate and provide a
narrative, rather than a one-word answer.
6. The nurse asks, “You don’t smoke, do you?” This is an example of:
A. Open-ended question
B. Leading question
C. Clarifying question
D. Reflective question
Rationale: Leading questions suggest the expected answer and can bias the response;
they are not therapeutic.
7. Which of the following is a component of the health history?
A. Past medical history
B. Physical examination findings
C. Laboratory results
D. Diagnostic imaging
Rationale: The health history includes: chief complaint, history of present illness, past
medical history, family history, social history, and review of systems.
,8. A client states, “I have had a cough for three days.” The nurse then asks, “Can
you describe the cough?” This is an example of:
A. Restating
B. Focusing
C. Summarizing
D. Confrontation
Rationale: Focusing narrows the topic to a specific detail to obtain more precise
information.
9. Which of the following is true about the “review of systems” (ROS)?
A. It is a physical examination of each body system
B. It is a series of questions asked to screen for health problems
C. It replaces the history of present illness
D. It is performed only at the initial visit
Rationale: The ROS is a subjective assessment; the nurse asks closed-ended questions
about each body system to identify missed problems.
10. A nurse is assessing a client’s level of consciousness. Which is the most reliable
indicator?
A. Client’s report of being awake
B. Response to verbal and painful stimuli
C. Ability to maintain eye contact
D. Spontaneous movement of all extremities
Rationale: Level of consciousness is assessed by observing orientation, awakening to
voice, and response to painful stimuli if unresponsive. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a
standard tool.
11. When assessing a client’s orientation, the nurse asks the client to identify their
location. This assesses orientation to:
A. Person
B. Time
C. Place
D. Situation
Rationale: Orientation to place is knowing where one is. Person is name; time is
date/year; situation is understanding the reason for hospitalization.
12. A client is unable to tell the nurse the current year. This indicates impaired
orientation to:
, A. Person
B. Time
C. Place
D. Situation
Rationale: Time orientation includes year, month, day, and time of day.
13. Which of the following Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) scores indicates severe brain
injury?
A. 15
B. 12
C. 8 or less
D. 10
Rationale: GCS ranges 3–15; ≤8 is classified as severe brain injury, often associated with
coma.
14. When performing a physical examination, the nurse should first:
A. Auscultate the abdomen
B. Inspect the area
C. Palpate deeply
D. Percuss for tone
Rationale: Inspection is always the first step in physical examination of each body area,
before palpation, percussion, or auscultation.
15. Which examination technique is used to assess density and fluid vs air in
underlying structures?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Rationale: Percussion produces sounds (tympany, resonance, hyperresonance, dullness)
that reflect underlying composition.
16. A nurse auscultates the abdomen. Which finding is normal?
A. No sounds for 5 minutes
B. Bowel sounds every 5–15 seconds
C. Bruit over the aorta
D. High-pitched tinkling sounds
2 & FINAL EXAM 300 Questions with 100%
Verified Answers & Rationales Latest 2025/2026
– Guaranteed Pass
EXAM 1: FOUNDATIONS & GENERAL ASSESSMENT
(Questions 1–100)
1. Which of the following is the first step in the nursing health assessment
process?
A. Physical examination
B. Collection of subjective data (health history)
C. Documentation
D. Analysis of data
Rationale: The nursing process begins with assessment. Subjective data collection
(interview/health history) is the initial step, followed by objective data (physical exam).
Analysis and documentation follow.
2. A nurse is performing a comprehensive health assessment on an adult client.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Measure vital signs
B. Establish a therapeutic relationship and explain the purpose of the assessment
C. Perform a head-to-toe physical examination
D. Review laboratory results
Rationale: Establishing rapport and explaining the process reduces anxiety, promotes
cooperation, and sets the stage for accurate data collection.
3. Which of the following is an example of subjective data?
A. Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
B. “I feel nauseated and dizzy.”
C. Heart rate 88 beats per minute
D. Lungs clear to auscultation
,Rationale: Subjective data are the client’s verbal description of symptoms, sensations,
or concerns. Objective data are measurable and observable (vital signs, physical exam
findings).
4. A nurse notes that a client’s skin is warm to the touch. This is an example of:
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data
C. Secondary data
D. Interpreted data
Rationale: Objective data are collected through observation, palpation, percussion, and
auscultation. The nurse’s finding is an objective measurement.
5. During the interview, the nurse asks, “What brought you to the hospital today?”
This is an example of:
A. Direct question
B. Open-ended question
C. Closed-ended question
D. Leading question
Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage the client to elaborate and provide a
narrative, rather than a one-word answer.
6. The nurse asks, “You don’t smoke, do you?” This is an example of:
A. Open-ended question
B. Leading question
C. Clarifying question
D. Reflective question
Rationale: Leading questions suggest the expected answer and can bias the response;
they are not therapeutic.
7. Which of the following is a component of the health history?
A. Past medical history
B. Physical examination findings
C. Laboratory results
D. Diagnostic imaging
Rationale: The health history includes: chief complaint, history of present illness, past
medical history, family history, social history, and review of systems.
,8. A client states, “I have had a cough for three days.” The nurse then asks, “Can
you describe the cough?” This is an example of:
A. Restating
B. Focusing
C. Summarizing
D. Confrontation
Rationale: Focusing narrows the topic to a specific detail to obtain more precise
information.
9. Which of the following is true about the “review of systems” (ROS)?
A. It is a physical examination of each body system
B. It is a series of questions asked to screen for health problems
C. It replaces the history of present illness
D. It is performed only at the initial visit
Rationale: The ROS is a subjective assessment; the nurse asks closed-ended questions
about each body system to identify missed problems.
10. A nurse is assessing a client’s level of consciousness. Which is the most reliable
indicator?
A. Client’s report of being awake
B. Response to verbal and painful stimuli
C. Ability to maintain eye contact
D. Spontaneous movement of all extremities
Rationale: Level of consciousness is assessed by observing orientation, awakening to
voice, and response to painful stimuli if unresponsive. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a
standard tool.
11. When assessing a client’s orientation, the nurse asks the client to identify their
location. This assesses orientation to:
A. Person
B. Time
C. Place
D. Situation
Rationale: Orientation to place is knowing where one is. Person is name; time is
date/year; situation is understanding the reason for hospitalization.
12. A client is unable to tell the nurse the current year. This indicates impaired
orientation to:
, A. Person
B. Time
C. Place
D. Situation
Rationale: Time orientation includes year, month, day, and time of day.
13. Which of the following Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) scores indicates severe brain
injury?
A. 15
B. 12
C. 8 or less
D. 10
Rationale: GCS ranges 3–15; ≤8 is classified as severe brain injury, often associated with
coma.
14. When performing a physical examination, the nurse should first:
A. Auscultate the abdomen
B. Inspect the area
C. Palpate deeply
D. Percuss for tone
Rationale: Inspection is always the first step in physical examination of each body area,
before palpation, percussion, or auscultation.
15. Which examination technique is used to assess density and fluid vs air in
underlying structures?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Rationale: Percussion produces sounds (tympany, resonance, hyperresonance, dullness)
that reflect underlying composition.
16. A nurse auscultates the abdomen. Which finding is normal?
A. No sounds for 5 minutes
B. Bowel sounds every 5–15 seconds
C. Bruit over the aorta
D. High-pitched tinkling sounds
