D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
ANSWER Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if
the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? ANSWER Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? ANSWER
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form
of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the
second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene? ANSWER Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the
cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a
baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? ANSWER The
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female)
to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?
ANSWER Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
ANSWER - Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough
and accurate assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. ANSWER The imprinted
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma-
tion and wound healing? ANSWER The underlying chronic illness exists.
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
ANSWER -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria? ANSWER Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? ANSWER Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen? ANSWER Immunogenicity is primarily based on
the ability to recognize something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? ANSWER The complement pathway is
activated in re- sponse to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
ANSWER An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections? ANSWER
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g.,
tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's
foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection? ANSWER Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after
sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to
result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
likelihood of exposure is suspected.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins? ANSWER Exotoxins are released
during bacte- rial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk
for developing colon cancer? ANSWER The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk
of developing colon cancer.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop? ANSWER Asbestos exposure results in an
increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. ANSWER UV
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
rays hit
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
ANSWER Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if
the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? ANSWER Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? ANSWER
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form
of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the
second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene? ANSWER Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the
cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a
baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? ANSWER The
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female)
to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?
ANSWER Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
ANSWER - Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough
and accurate assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. ANSWER The imprinted
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma-
tion and wound healing? ANSWER The underlying chronic illness exists.
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
ANSWER -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria? ANSWER Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? ANSWER Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen? ANSWER Immunogenicity is primarily based on
the ability to recognize something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? ANSWER The complement pathway is
activated in re- sponse to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
ANSWER An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections? ANSWER
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g.,
tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's
foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection? ANSWER Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after
sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to
result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
likelihood of exposure is suspected.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins? ANSWER Exotoxins are released
during bacte- rial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk
for developing colon cancer? ANSWER The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk
of developing colon cancer.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop? ANSWER Asbestos exposure results in an
increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. ANSWER UV
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026
light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
rays hit
