NSG 430 FINAL EXAM: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Critical Care, Shock,
Burns, Cardiac, Renal, Infectious Disease, Neurology | Q&A | Grade A | 100%
Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: Comprehensive Nursing Review – Shock States (Cardiogenic, Septic, Hypovolemic), Burns & Wound Care,
Cardiac Disorders (MI, Valvular Disease, Pericarditis), Renal Failure & Electrolytes, Infectious Disease (Meningitis,
Cellulitis, SJS), Neurological Emergencies, Gastrointestinal/Hepatic Disorders, Endocrine, Pharmacology, Prioritization
& Delegation
Source: NSG 430 Final Exam Bank – Latest 2026/2027 Curriculum
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
Total Questions: 125+ (All processed – no omissions, no truncation)
1. SATA: Which are risk factors for bacterial infection?
Correct Answer: Diabetes Mellitus, Atopic dermatitis, Moisture, Obesity, Skin neoplasms (all options).
1. Each factor impairs skin integrity or immune function.
2. Diabetes impairs wound healing and immune response; moisture macerates skin; obesity impairs vascularity.
2. SATA: Treatment for lower extremity cellulitis, what orders do you expect?
Correct Answer: Vancomycin 1000mls, Elevate the extremity, Heat packs.
1. IV antibiotics (vancomycin) treat the infection.
2. Elevation reduces edema; heat improves circulation.
3. Which data collected for a patient with cardiogenic shock indicates possible multiple organ dysfunction
syndrome (MODS)?
Correct Answer: The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated.
1. Elevated creatinine indicates acute kidney injury from reduced perfusion.
2. MODS involves sequential failure of two or more organ systems.
4. INR/PT levels doubled, what are you giving?
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma.
1. FFP contains clotting factors to reverse coagulopathy.
2. Vitamin K treats warfarin reversal but FFP acts immediately.
5. A patient recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis with level 6 chest pain on deep breathing.
Which PRN medication is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.
1. Pericarditis pain responds best to NSAIDs (anti-inflammatory).
2. Aspirin is also used; opioids are second-line.
6. Which assessment suggests chest pain is caused by acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?
Correct Answer: The pain has lasted longer than 30 minutes.
1. Angina typically lasts <15 minutes; prolonged pain suggests MI.
2. MI pain is not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.
, 7. Which nursing action is included for a patient with bleeding esophageal varices treated with balloon
tamponade?
Correct Answer: Monitor the patient for shortness of breath.
1. Balloon can migrate upward and occlude airway.
2. Scissors must be at bedside to deflate balloon if respiratory distress occurs.
8. A 42-year-old with possible brain injury after MVA. Which finding is most important to report?
Correct Answer: Patient states they regularly take warfarin (Coumadin) regularly.
1. Warfarin increases risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
2. Coagulation studies and reversal agents may be needed urgently.
9. A 68-year-old with mechanical mitral valve replacement requires discharge teaching on?
Correct Answer: Need for frequent PTT/INR measurement; long-term anticoagulants.
1. Mechanical valves require lifelong warfarin.
2. INR target 2.5-3.5 for mechanical mitral valve.
10. Which assessment finding for acute pyelonephritis is most important to report?
Correct Answer: Blood pressure 82/60 mm Hg.
1. Hypotension indicates possible urosepsis/septic shock.
2. Requires immediate fluid resuscitation and vasopressors.
11. Decorticate posture: what would you question?
Correct Answer: Consent for the lumbar puncture.
1. Decorticate posturing indicates increased ICP.
2. LP is contraindicated in increased ICP (risk of herniation).
12. A patient with acute pancreatitis reports excessive thirst, voiding, and blurred vision. What is the
priority?
Correct Answer: Checking the patient's blood glucose.
1. Pancreatitis can cause hyperglycemia; polyuria/polydipsia/blurred vision are signs of hyperglycemia.
2. May indicate new-onset diabetes or DKA.
13. What are early signs of hypoxemia in a patient with anemia?
Correct Answer: Restlessness.
1. Early signs: restlessness, anxiety, confusion (CNS responds first).
2. Late signs: bradycardia, cyanosis, somnolence.
14. Annual physical exam for a 50-year-old man – plan to teach about?
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy.
1. Colon cancer screening begins at age 45-50.
2. Colonoscopy every 10 years for average risk.
15. Which finding indicates TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) placed 3 months ago has
been effective?
Correct Answer: Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.
1. TIPS reduces portal pressure to prevent variceal bleeding.
2. Does not improve liver function (albumin, bilirubin).
16. What is an expected lab value for someone with SIADH?
Correct Answer: The patient has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L.
1. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia from water retention.
2. Urine specific gravity is high (>1.020) with low serum sodium.
Burns, Cardiac, Renal, Infectious Disease, Neurology | Q&A | Grade A | 100%
Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: Comprehensive Nursing Review – Shock States (Cardiogenic, Septic, Hypovolemic), Burns & Wound Care,
Cardiac Disorders (MI, Valvular Disease, Pericarditis), Renal Failure & Electrolytes, Infectious Disease (Meningitis,
Cellulitis, SJS), Neurological Emergencies, Gastrointestinal/Hepatic Disorders, Endocrine, Pharmacology, Prioritization
& Delegation
Source: NSG 430 Final Exam Bank – Latest 2026/2027 Curriculum
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
Total Questions: 125+ (All processed – no omissions, no truncation)
1. SATA: Which are risk factors for bacterial infection?
Correct Answer: Diabetes Mellitus, Atopic dermatitis, Moisture, Obesity, Skin neoplasms (all options).
1. Each factor impairs skin integrity or immune function.
2. Diabetes impairs wound healing and immune response; moisture macerates skin; obesity impairs vascularity.
2. SATA: Treatment for lower extremity cellulitis, what orders do you expect?
Correct Answer: Vancomycin 1000mls, Elevate the extremity, Heat packs.
1. IV antibiotics (vancomycin) treat the infection.
2. Elevation reduces edema; heat improves circulation.
3. Which data collected for a patient with cardiogenic shock indicates possible multiple organ dysfunction
syndrome (MODS)?
Correct Answer: The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated.
1. Elevated creatinine indicates acute kidney injury from reduced perfusion.
2. MODS involves sequential failure of two or more organ systems.
4. INR/PT levels doubled, what are you giving?
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma.
1. FFP contains clotting factors to reverse coagulopathy.
2. Vitamin K treats warfarin reversal but FFP acts immediately.
5. A patient recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis with level 6 chest pain on deep breathing.
Which PRN medication is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.
1. Pericarditis pain responds best to NSAIDs (anti-inflammatory).
2. Aspirin is also used; opioids are second-line.
6. Which assessment suggests chest pain is caused by acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?
Correct Answer: The pain has lasted longer than 30 minutes.
1. Angina typically lasts <15 minutes; prolonged pain suggests MI.
2. MI pain is not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.
, 7. Which nursing action is included for a patient with bleeding esophageal varices treated with balloon
tamponade?
Correct Answer: Monitor the patient for shortness of breath.
1. Balloon can migrate upward and occlude airway.
2. Scissors must be at bedside to deflate balloon if respiratory distress occurs.
8. A 42-year-old with possible brain injury after MVA. Which finding is most important to report?
Correct Answer: Patient states they regularly take warfarin (Coumadin) regularly.
1. Warfarin increases risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
2. Coagulation studies and reversal agents may be needed urgently.
9. A 68-year-old with mechanical mitral valve replacement requires discharge teaching on?
Correct Answer: Need for frequent PTT/INR measurement; long-term anticoagulants.
1. Mechanical valves require lifelong warfarin.
2. INR target 2.5-3.5 for mechanical mitral valve.
10. Which assessment finding for acute pyelonephritis is most important to report?
Correct Answer: Blood pressure 82/60 mm Hg.
1. Hypotension indicates possible urosepsis/septic shock.
2. Requires immediate fluid resuscitation and vasopressors.
11. Decorticate posture: what would you question?
Correct Answer: Consent for the lumbar puncture.
1. Decorticate posturing indicates increased ICP.
2. LP is contraindicated in increased ICP (risk of herniation).
12. A patient with acute pancreatitis reports excessive thirst, voiding, and blurred vision. What is the
priority?
Correct Answer: Checking the patient's blood glucose.
1. Pancreatitis can cause hyperglycemia; polyuria/polydipsia/blurred vision are signs of hyperglycemia.
2. May indicate new-onset diabetes or DKA.
13. What are early signs of hypoxemia in a patient with anemia?
Correct Answer: Restlessness.
1. Early signs: restlessness, anxiety, confusion (CNS responds first).
2. Late signs: bradycardia, cyanosis, somnolence.
14. Annual physical exam for a 50-year-old man – plan to teach about?
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy.
1. Colon cancer screening begins at age 45-50.
2. Colonoscopy every 10 years for average risk.
15. Which finding indicates TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) placed 3 months ago has
been effective?
Correct Answer: Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.
1. TIPS reduces portal pressure to prevent variceal bleeding.
2. Does not improve liver function (albumin, bilirubin).
16. What is an expected lab value for someone with SIADH?
Correct Answer: The patient has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L.
1. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia from water retention.
2. Urine specific gravity is high (>1.020) with low serum sodium.
