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WGU D120 Quiz questions and Answers
100% Correct Questions and Correct
Answers/ Latest Update / Already Graded
A young woman is complaining of tenderness and burning of her
vulva. On exam, the vulva is edematous and excoriated. The FNP
performs a wet mount preparation of vaginal secretions. It reveals
pseudohyphae and spores. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
Ans: vulvovaginal candidiasis;
Pseudohyphae and spores on the wet mount with potassium
hydroxide are diagnostic for candida infection.
A young woman presents with complaints of irritation in the vaginal
area. This is the first time this has occurred. On exam, the cervix is
inflamed and friable. Flagellated protozoa are seen on the wet mount.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ans: trichomoniasis;
Flagellated protozoan confirms the diagnosis of trichomoniasis.
A 21-year-old female patient presents for her first well-woman exam.
She has never been sexually active. Her family history and past medical
history are negative for any gynecologic diseases. Her menses occur
every 28 days, lasting 5 days, with a relatively moderate flow and no
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
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significant dysmenorrhea. Her physical exam should include which
tests?
Ans: Pap smear;
The recommended age for females to begin screening pap
smears is at the age of 21, regardless of sexual activity history.
STD screening is not necessary as the patient is not sexually
active. Hemoccult and mammogram are not recommended for
this age group of patient.
A young adult patient presents with a history of vaginal itching and
heavy white discharge. The patient denies a history of sexual activity.
On exam, the FNP finds a red, edematous vulva and white patches on
the vaginal walls. The discharge has no odor. What finding would the
FNP suspect in the patient's history?
Ans: recent antibiotic use;
Almost half of all vaginal infections are caused by candida. The
majority of women who develop this infection have recently
taken antibiotics.
A 46-year-old female patient is being seen in the clinic by the FNP. She
was last seen 2 weeks ago for an upper respiratory tract infection and
was treated with amoxicillin 250mg PO TID x 10days. She completed
her medication last week, but now complains of vaginal itching and
thick white discharge. She states that she has never experienced such
intense itching. She is in a mutually monogamous relationship. Her
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
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LMP was 2 weeks ago. Her partner had a vasectomy. Wet mount
shows negative whiff test, rare clue cells, positive lactobacilli, positive
hyphae, positive spores, few WBCs, and no trichomonads. She is
leaving tomorrow for a week long cruise. She is not taking any
medications and has no known drug allergies. The FNP should
prescribe which of the following?
Ans: fluconazole 150mg 1 tab PO x1 dose;
Fluconazole is approved for a single-dose oral treatment of
uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis. It is the most
convenient treatment for this patient who will is unlikely to be
compliant with vaginal creams given the upcoming travel.
A 25-year-old patient presents with complaints of malodorous vaginal
discharge, which is white and watery. She douches with vinegar and
water every 2 weeks. She uses a diaphragm for contraception and has
been sexually active with her boyfriend for two years, using condoms
for STD prevention. Her LMP was 1 week ago, and there are no noted
changes in her normal menstrual pattern. Her wet mount shows a
positive whiff test, clue cells too numerous to count, no lactobacilli, no
hyphae, no spores. What is the diagnosis and treatment for this
patient?
Ans: bacterial vaginosis: metronidazole vaginal gel 1 applicator
HS x 5 days.;
Metronidazole vaginal gel is the treatment of choice for
bacterial vaginosis in the non-pregnant female. The presence of
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |4
clue cells, and the associated malodorous discharge and
absence of lactobacilli are markers for the diagnosis of bacterial
vaginosis.
A 41-year-old patient is seen for her 6-week postpartum exam by the
FNP. She is breastfeeding without difficulty and plans to continue for a
year. She wants to begin using contraception and plans no further
pregnancies. Which of the following is not an appropriate choice for
this patient?
Ans: Combination OC;
Combination OCs are not recommended for breastfeeding
mothers because of the effect of estrogen on milk supply.
Progestin only OCs, IUDs, and Depo-Provera are acceptable
methods of contraception for breastfeeding mothers.
Which two patients should have a Pap smear test performed by the
FNP?
Ans: Based on USPSTF guidelines, pap smear tests sh ould be
performed on female patients aged 21 and older, regardless of
sexual activity.
What finding is considered a normal surface characteristic of the
cervix?
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
WGU D120 Quiz questions and Answers
100% Correct Questions and Correct
Answers/ Latest Update / Already Graded
A young woman is complaining of tenderness and burning of her
vulva. On exam, the vulva is edematous and excoriated. The FNP
performs a wet mount preparation of vaginal secretions. It reveals
pseudohyphae and spores. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
Ans: vulvovaginal candidiasis;
Pseudohyphae and spores on the wet mount with potassium
hydroxide are diagnostic for candida infection.
A young woman presents with complaints of irritation in the vaginal
area. This is the first time this has occurred. On exam, the cervix is
inflamed and friable. Flagellated protozoa are seen on the wet mount.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ans: trichomoniasis;
Flagellated protozoan confirms the diagnosis of trichomoniasis.
A 21-year-old female patient presents for her first well-woman exam.
She has never been sexually active. Her family history and past medical
history are negative for any gynecologic diseases. Her menses occur
every 28 days, lasting 5 days, with a relatively moderate flow and no
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |2
significant dysmenorrhea. Her physical exam should include which
tests?
Ans: Pap smear;
The recommended age for females to begin screening pap
smears is at the age of 21, regardless of sexual activity history.
STD screening is not necessary as the patient is not sexually
active. Hemoccult and mammogram are not recommended for
this age group of patient.
A young adult patient presents with a history of vaginal itching and
heavy white discharge. The patient denies a history of sexual activity.
On exam, the FNP finds a red, edematous vulva and white patches on
the vaginal walls. The discharge has no odor. What finding would the
FNP suspect in the patient's history?
Ans: recent antibiotic use;
Almost half of all vaginal infections are caused by candida. The
majority of women who develop this infection have recently
taken antibiotics.
A 46-year-old female patient is being seen in the clinic by the FNP. She
was last seen 2 weeks ago for an upper respiratory tract infection and
was treated with amoxicillin 250mg PO TID x 10days. She completed
her medication last week, but now complains of vaginal itching and
thick white discharge. She states that she has never experienced such
intense itching. She is in a mutually monogamous relationship. Her
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |3
LMP was 2 weeks ago. Her partner had a vasectomy. Wet mount
shows negative whiff test, rare clue cells, positive lactobacilli, positive
hyphae, positive spores, few WBCs, and no trichomonads. She is
leaving tomorrow for a week long cruise. She is not taking any
medications and has no known drug allergies. The FNP should
prescribe which of the following?
Ans: fluconazole 150mg 1 tab PO x1 dose;
Fluconazole is approved for a single-dose oral treatment of
uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis. It is the most
convenient treatment for this patient who will is unlikely to be
compliant with vaginal creams given the upcoming travel.
A 25-year-old patient presents with complaints of malodorous vaginal
discharge, which is white and watery. She douches with vinegar and
water every 2 weeks. She uses a diaphragm for contraception and has
been sexually active with her boyfriend for two years, using condoms
for STD prevention. Her LMP was 1 week ago, and there are no noted
changes in her normal menstrual pattern. Her wet mount shows a
positive whiff test, clue cells too numerous to count, no lactobacilli, no
hyphae, no spores. What is the diagnosis and treatment for this
patient?
Ans: bacterial vaginosis: metronidazole vaginal gel 1 applicator
HS x 5 days.;
Metronidazole vaginal gel is the treatment of choice for
bacterial vaginosis in the non-pregnant female. The presence of
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |4
clue cells, and the associated malodorous discharge and
absence of lactobacilli are markers for the diagnosis of bacterial
vaginosis.
A 41-year-old patient is seen for her 6-week postpartum exam by the
FNP. She is breastfeeding without difficulty and plans to continue for a
year. She wants to begin using contraception and plans no further
pregnancies. Which of the following is not an appropriate choice for
this patient?
Ans: Combination OC;
Combination OCs are not recommended for breastfeeding
mothers because of the effect of estrogen on milk supply.
Progestin only OCs, IUDs, and Depo-Provera are acceptable
methods of contraception for breastfeeding mothers.
Which two patients should have a Pap smear test performed by the
FNP?
Ans: Based on USPSTF guidelines, pap smear tests sh ould be
performed on female patients aged 21 and older, regardless of
sexual activity.
What finding is considered a normal surface characteristic of the
cervix?
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
