NURS 5220 EXAM 1 M2 REVIEW - (50 QUESTIONS) UP-TO-DATE
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS |
VERIFIED ANSWERS - INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Candidate Name: ____________________________
Candidate ID: _______________________________
Date: ______________________________________
Examination Centre: _________________________
Time Allocation: 90 Minutes
Total Questions: 50
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and select the best answer. Each question has
only one correct answer. Manage your time effectively, allocating
approximately 1–2 minutes per question. Do not leave any questions
unanswered. Use clinical reasoning and evidence-based knowledge to guide
your choices.
Disclaimer:
This is a simulated examination designed for educational purposes. It reflects
the structure and rigor of advanced health assessment examinations but does not
contain actual exam questions.
This assessment evaluates the student’s ability to apply advanced health
assessment principles, including comprehensive history-taking, physical
examination techniques, clinical reasoning, and diagnostic interpretation.
Emphasis is placed on integrating pathophysiological knowledge with patient
presentation to support accurate clinical decision-making in diverse
populations.
Core Competency Areas:
• Advanced Health History and Interviewing Techniques
• Comprehensive Physical Examination
• Cardiovascular, Respiratory, and Neurological Assessment
• Differential Diagnosis and Clinical Reasoning
, • Diagnostic Interpretation and Documentation
Q1. A 58-year-old male presents with intermittent chest discomfort described as
pressure radiating to the left arm during exertion. Which assessment finding
most strongly supports a diagnosis of stable angina?
A. Chest pain occurring at rest and lasting over 30 minutes
B. Pain relieved by rest or nitroglycerin within minutes
C. Sharp chest pain worsened by inspiration
D. Pain associated with diaphoresis and nausea at rest
Correct Answer: B. Pain relieved by rest or nitroglycerin within minutes
Explanation: Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain
triggered by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Option A suggests
unstable angina or myocardial infarction. Option C indicates pleuritic pain.
Option D suggests acute coronary syndrome rather than stable angina.
Q2. During a neurological exam, a patient demonstrates inability to perform
rapid alternating movements. This finding is most consistent with dysfunction
of which structure?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Cerebellum
C. Basal ganglia
D. Temporal lobe
Correct Answer: B. Cerebellum
Explanation: Dysdiadochokinesia indicates cerebellar dysfunction. The
cerebellum coordinates motor activity. Frontal lobe affects executive function,
,basal ganglia regulate movement initiation, and temporal lobe is linked to
memory and hearing.
Q3. A nurse practitioner palpates a patient’s thyroid and notes a bruit. What is
the most likely clinical implication?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Thyroid malignancy
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Thyroid cyst
Correct Answer: C. Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: A thyroid bruit suggests increased vascularity, commonly seen
in hyperthyroidism such as Graves’ disease. Hypothyroidism typically shows
reduced activity. Malignancy may present with nodules, not bruit.
Q4. Which heart sound is best heard at the apex and is associated with
ventricular filling?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
Correct Answer: C. S3
Explanation: S3 occurs during rapid ventricular filling and is best heard at
the apex. S1 marks AV valve closure, S2 semilunar closure, and S4 occurs with
atrial contraction.
, Q5. A patient presents with unilateral facial droop sparing the forehead. This
finding suggests:
A. Bell’s palsy
B. Upper motor neuron lesion
C. Lower motor neuron lesion
D. Trigeminal nerve damage
Correct Answer: B. Upper motor neuron lesion
Explanation: Forehead sparing indicates an upper motor neuron lesion,
such as stroke. Bell’s palsy affects the entire face. Trigeminal nerve affects
sensation, not motor facial droop.
Q6. Which technique is most appropriate for assessing tactile fremitus?
A. Using fingertips to palpate vibrations
B. Using the ulnar surface of the hand
C. Percussion of the chest wall
D. Auscultation with diaphragm
Correct Answer: B. Using the ulnar surface of the hand
Explanation: Tactile fremitus is best assessed using the ulnar edge of the
hand. Fingertips are less sensitive. Percussion and auscultation assess different
aspects.
Q7. A patient has a blood pressure difference of 20 mmHg between arms. What
is the most likely concern?
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS |
VERIFIED ANSWERS - INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Candidate Name: ____________________________
Candidate ID: _______________________________
Date: ______________________________________
Examination Centre: _________________________
Time Allocation: 90 Minutes
Total Questions: 50
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and select the best answer. Each question has
only one correct answer. Manage your time effectively, allocating
approximately 1–2 minutes per question. Do not leave any questions
unanswered. Use clinical reasoning and evidence-based knowledge to guide
your choices.
Disclaimer:
This is a simulated examination designed for educational purposes. It reflects
the structure and rigor of advanced health assessment examinations but does not
contain actual exam questions.
This assessment evaluates the student’s ability to apply advanced health
assessment principles, including comprehensive history-taking, physical
examination techniques, clinical reasoning, and diagnostic interpretation.
Emphasis is placed on integrating pathophysiological knowledge with patient
presentation to support accurate clinical decision-making in diverse
populations.
Core Competency Areas:
• Advanced Health History and Interviewing Techniques
• Comprehensive Physical Examination
• Cardiovascular, Respiratory, and Neurological Assessment
• Differential Diagnosis and Clinical Reasoning
, • Diagnostic Interpretation and Documentation
Q1. A 58-year-old male presents with intermittent chest discomfort described as
pressure radiating to the left arm during exertion. Which assessment finding
most strongly supports a diagnosis of stable angina?
A. Chest pain occurring at rest and lasting over 30 minutes
B. Pain relieved by rest or nitroglycerin within minutes
C. Sharp chest pain worsened by inspiration
D. Pain associated with diaphoresis and nausea at rest
Correct Answer: B. Pain relieved by rest or nitroglycerin within minutes
Explanation: Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain
triggered by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Option A suggests
unstable angina or myocardial infarction. Option C indicates pleuritic pain.
Option D suggests acute coronary syndrome rather than stable angina.
Q2. During a neurological exam, a patient demonstrates inability to perform
rapid alternating movements. This finding is most consistent with dysfunction
of which structure?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Cerebellum
C. Basal ganglia
D. Temporal lobe
Correct Answer: B. Cerebellum
Explanation: Dysdiadochokinesia indicates cerebellar dysfunction. The
cerebellum coordinates motor activity. Frontal lobe affects executive function,
,basal ganglia regulate movement initiation, and temporal lobe is linked to
memory and hearing.
Q3. A nurse practitioner palpates a patient’s thyroid and notes a bruit. What is
the most likely clinical implication?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Thyroid malignancy
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Thyroid cyst
Correct Answer: C. Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: A thyroid bruit suggests increased vascularity, commonly seen
in hyperthyroidism such as Graves’ disease. Hypothyroidism typically shows
reduced activity. Malignancy may present with nodules, not bruit.
Q4. Which heart sound is best heard at the apex and is associated with
ventricular filling?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
Correct Answer: C. S3
Explanation: S3 occurs during rapid ventricular filling and is best heard at
the apex. S1 marks AV valve closure, S2 semilunar closure, and S4 occurs with
atrial contraction.
, Q5. A patient presents with unilateral facial droop sparing the forehead. This
finding suggests:
A. Bell’s palsy
B. Upper motor neuron lesion
C. Lower motor neuron lesion
D. Trigeminal nerve damage
Correct Answer: B. Upper motor neuron lesion
Explanation: Forehead sparing indicates an upper motor neuron lesion,
such as stroke. Bell’s palsy affects the entire face. Trigeminal nerve affects
sensation, not motor facial droop.
Q6. Which technique is most appropriate for assessing tactile fremitus?
A. Using fingertips to palpate vibrations
B. Using the ulnar surface of the hand
C. Percussion of the chest wall
D. Auscultation with diaphragm
Correct Answer: B. Using the ulnar surface of the hand
Explanation: Tactile fremitus is best assessed using the ulnar edge of the
hand. Fingertips are less sensitive. Percussion and auscultation assess different
aspects.
Q7. A patient has a blood pressure difference of 20 mmHg between arms. What
is the most likely concern?
