QMA Final Practice Test ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | QMA Qualified
Medication Aide | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: PHARMACOLOGY BASICS (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A QMA is preparing to administer metoprolol (Lopressor), a beta-blocker. The MAR states "Hold if
apical pulse < 60." The resident’s radial pulse is 62, but the apical pulse is 58. What is the correct action?
A. Administer the medication because the radial pulse is within normal limits.
B. Hold the medication, notify the nurse, and document the apical pulse. [CORRECT]
C. Give half the dose to be safe.
D. Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes and then decide.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers slow the heart rate. An apical pulse of 58 meets the hold parameter (< 60). The
QMA must hold the medication and follow facility protocol for notification.
A is wrong: The order specifies apical pulse; radial pulse may be lower than apical or inaccurate.
C is wrong: QMAs cannot alter dosages (splitting pills) without a specific order.
D is wrong: Holding the medication is the immediate safety priority; waiting 30 minutes delays necessary
care.
Q2: Which of the following is a common side effect of furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic?
A. Constipation
,B. Hypokalemia (low potassium) [CORRECT]
C. Hypertension
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide causes the body to excrete fluid and electrolytes, leading to low potassium levels
(hypokalemia).
A is wrong: Diuretics typically cause diarrhea or increased output, not constipation.
C is wrong: It is given to lower blood pressure.
D is wrong: It causes weight loss due to fluid loss.
Q3: A resident is taking warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant. The QMA should monitor the resident
for which sign of bleeding?
A. Black, tarry stools [CORRECT]
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased appetite
D. Dry, flaky skin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Black, tarry stools (melena) indicate digested blood and are a serious sign of GI bleeding in
patients on anticoagulants.
B, C, D are wrong: These are not typical signs of hemorrhage associated with anticoagulants.
Q4: The QMA is administering lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor. The resident reports a persistent dry cough.
What should the QMA do?
A. Offer the resident a cough suppressant.
B. Document the complaint and notify the nurse immediately. [CORRECT]
,C. Ignore the cough as it is likely a cold.
D. Hold the medication for 24 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dry, non-productive cough is a classic side effect of ACE inhibitors. While not an emergency,
it requires assessment by the provider to consider switching medications.
A is wrong: The QMA cannot prescribe OTC meds; the symptom needs medical evaluation.
C is wrong: It is a medication side effect, not a viral symptom.
D is wrong: The nurse/doctor needs to determine if the med should be held or changed.
Q5: A resident has a new order for a medication that requires administration via the sublingual route.
Where should the QMA place the tablet?
A. Under the tongue [CORRECT]
B. Between the cheek and gum
C. On top of the tongue
D. Swallowed with water
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sublingual means "under the tongue." This area has a rich blood supply for rapid absorption.
B is wrong: This describes the buccal route.
C & D are wrong: These would delay or prevent absorption of the drug.
Q6: When administering a medication for "anxiety" or "agitation" (psychotropic), what is the QMA's
primary observation responsibility?
A. Monitoring for extrapyramidal symptoms (tremors, rigidity)
B. Determining if the resident needs a higher dose
C. Asking the family if the medication works
, D. Checking the resident's blood glucose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Psychotropic medications carry risks of movement disorders (EPS). The QMA must observe
for tremors, shuffling gait, or restlessness.
B is wrong: QMAs cannot determine dosage changes.
C is wrong: Subjective family opinion is not the primary clinical observation.
D is wrong: Psychotropics do not typically affect blood glucose directly (unlike atypical antipsychotics
which might, but EPS is the immediate safety monitoring priority).
Q7: A resident refuses their morning dose of insulin. What is the QMA's priority action?
A. Mix the insulin in their food so they take it unknowingly.
B. Document the refusal and notify the nurse immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Tell the resident they will die if they don't take it.
D. Try to convince them for 20 minutes until they agree.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Residents have the right to refuse. Insulin refusal creates a significant medical risk
(hyperglycemia/DKA), requiring immediate nurse notification.
A is wrong: This is battery/medication error (hiding meds).
C is wrong: This is coercion and threatening behavior.
D is wrong: Excessive coercion violates resident rights.
Q8: A physician orders 500 mg of a medication. The pharmacy sends a bottle labeled 250 mg per tablet.
How many tablets should the QMA administer?
A. 1 tablet
B. 1.5 tablets
EXAM 2026/2027 | QMA Qualified
Medication Aide | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: PHARMACOLOGY BASICS (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A QMA is preparing to administer metoprolol (Lopressor), a beta-blocker. The MAR states "Hold if
apical pulse < 60." The resident’s radial pulse is 62, but the apical pulse is 58. What is the correct action?
A. Administer the medication because the radial pulse is within normal limits.
B. Hold the medication, notify the nurse, and document the apical pulse. [CORRECT]
C. Give half the dose to be safe.
D. Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes and then decide.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers slow the heart rate. An apical pulse of 58 meets the hold parameter (< 60). The
QMA must hold the medication and follow facility protocol for notification.
A is wrong: The order specifies apical pulse; radial pulse may be lower than apical or inaccurate.
C is wrong: QMAs cannot alter dosages (splitting pills) without a specific order.
D is wrong: Holding the medication is the immediate safety priority; waiting 30 minutes delays necessary
care.
Q2: Which of the following is a common side effect of furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic?
A. Constipation
,B. Hypokalemia (low potassium) [CORRECT]
C. Hypertension
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide causes the body to excrete fluid and electrolytes, leading to low potassium levels
(hypokalemia).
A is wrong: Diuretics typically cause diarrhea or increased output, not constipation.
C is wrong: It is given to lower blood pressure.
D is wrong: It causes weight loss due to fluid loss.
Q3: A resident is taking warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant. The QMA should monitor the resident
for which sign of bleeding?
A. Black, tarry stools [CORRECT]
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased appetite
D. Dry, flaky skin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Black, tarry stools (melena) indicate digested blood and are a serious sign of GI bleeding in
patients on anticoagulants.
B, C, D are wrong: These are not typical signs of hemorrhage associated with anticoagulants.
Q4: The QMA is administering lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor. The resident reports a persistent dry cough.
What should the QMA do?
A. Offer the resident a cough suppressant.
B. Document the complaint and notify the nurse immediately. [CORRECT]
,C. Ignore the cough as it is likely a cold.
D. Hold the medication for 24 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dry, non-productive cough is a classic side effect of ACE inhibitors. While not an emergency,
it requires assessment by the provider to consider switching medications.
A is wrong: The QMA cannot prescribe OTC meds; the symptom needs medical evaluation.
C is wrong: It is a medication side effect, not a viral symptom.
D is wrong: The nurse/doctor needs to determine if the med should be held or changed.
Q5: A resident has a new order for a medication that requires administration via the sublingual route.
Where should the QMA place the tablet?
A. Under the tongue [CORRECT]
B. Between the cheek and gum
C. On top of the tongue
D. Swallowed with water
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sublingual means "under the tongue." This area has a rich blood supply for rapid absorption.
B is wrong: This describes the buccal route.
C & D are wrong: These would delay or prevent absorption of the drug.
Q6: When administering a medication for "anxiety" or "agitation" (psychotropic), what is the QMA's
primary observation responsibility?
A. Monitoring for extrapyramidal symptoms (tremors, rigidity)
B. Determining if the resident needs a higher dose
C. Asking the family if the medication works
, D. Checking the resident's blood glucose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Psychotropic medications carry risks of movement disorders (EPS). The QMA must observe
for tremors, shuffling gait, or restlessness.
B is wrong: QMAs cannot determine dosage changes.
C is wrong: Subjective family opinion is not the primary clinical observation.
D is wrong: Psychotropics do not typically affect blood glucose directly (unlike atypical antipsychotics
which might, but EPS is the immediate safety monitoring priority).
Q7: A resident refuses their morning dose of insulin. What is the QMA's priority action?
A. Mix the insulin in their food so they take it unknowingly.
B. Document the refusal and notify the nurse immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Tell the resident they will die if they don't take it.
D. Try to convince them for 20 minutes until they agree.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Residents have the right to refuse. Insulin refusal creates a significant medical risk
(hyperglycemia/DKA), requiring immediate nurse notification.
A is wrong: This is battery/medication error (hiding meds).
C is wrong: This is coercion and threatening behavior.
D is wrong: Excessive coercion violates resident rights.
Q8: A physician orders 500 mg of a medication. The pharmacy sends a bottle labeled 250 mg per tablet.
How many tablets should the QMA administer?
A. 1 tablet
B. 1.5 tablets
