NSG 430 Exam 2 Cardiac & Perfusion: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) HTN,
CAD, Heart Failure, Dysrhythmias, PAD, DVT, Lab Values | Q&A | Grade A
| 100% Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: Cardiac & Perfusion – Hypertension, Coronary Artery Disease, Heart Failure, Dysrhythmias,
Peripheral Artery Disease, Venous Thromboembolism, Lab Interpretation, Pharmacology
Source: NSG 430 Exam 2 Bank – Latest 2026/2027 Curriculum
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
Total Questions: 136 (All processed – no omissions, no truncation)
1: What indicates that furosemide is NOT effective in a patient?
Correct Answer: Bilateral pitting edema
1. Persistent or worsening edema indicates inadequate diuresis.
2. Assess daily weights and I&O; notify provider if no response.
2: What indicates that furosemide and potassium supplementation are working effectively?
Correct Answer: 3lb weight loss and diuresis
1. Weight loss of 1-2 lbs/day reflects successful diuresis without dehydration.
2. Monitor potassium levels to prevent hypokalemia.
3: What is a side effect of furosemide?
Correct Answer: A potassium of 3.1 (can cause hypokalemia)
1. Loop diuretics cause potassium wasting; normal range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L.
2. Monitor for muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, and administer potassium supplements or potassium-sparing
diuretics.
4: What is the most important cancer prevention strategy?
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
1. Tobacco use causes 30% of all cancer deaths, including lung, bladder, and head/neck cancers.
2. Smoking cessation reduces risk even after decades of use.
5: What are early symptoms of hypertension?
Correct Answer: No symptoms
1. Hypertension is the "silent killer" – often asymptomatic until target organ damage occurs.
2. Regular screening is essential for early detection.
,6: A nurse walks into a room and finds a male patient with Von Willebrand Disease (hemophilia) on
the floor with a UAP. What is the priority action?
Correct Answer: A male patient with Von Willebrand Disease found on the floor with a UAP
1. Assess patient for bleeding, injury, and level of consciousness first.
2. Von Willebrand patients have bleeding risk; check for head trauma or joint bleeding.
7: ECG shows ventricular tachycardia. What is the priority response?
Correct Answer: Check for a pulse
1. Differentiate between pulseless VT (cardiac arrest) and stable VT with pulse.
2. If pulseless, start CPR and defibrillate. If pulse present, consider amiodarone or cardioversion.
8: What ECG finding indicates risk for ventricular tachycardia?
Correct Answer: PVC (premature ventricular contractions) – 3 or more PVCs = ventricular
tachycardia
1. Frequent PVCs (especially runs of 3+) degenerate into sustained VT.
2. Identify and treat underlying cause: electrolyte imbalance, ischemia, or stimulants.
9: What is a PVC (premature ventricular contraction)?
Correct Answer: PVC
1. Early ventricular depolarization; often benign unless frequent or multifocal.
2. Assess for underlying heart disease, caffeine, or stress.
10: What ECG finding is characteristic of atrial fibrillation (AFib)?
Correct Answer: AFIB (absent P wave)
1. AFib shows no discernible P waves and irregularly irregular rhythm.
2. Risk of thromboembolism; anticoagulation indicated.
11: What is ventricular tachycardia (V. Tach)?
Correct Answer: V.Tach
1. Wide QRS complex tachycardia originating in ventricles.
2. Can be monomorphic or polymorphic; sustained VT requires intervention.
12: What is sinus bradycardia characterized by on ECG?
Correct Answer: Sinus bradycardia (super slow, mostly straight line, basically dead)
1. Sinus bradycardia has normal P waves and QRS but rate <60 bpm.
2. Symptomatic bradycardia (hypotension, altered mental status) requires atropine or pacing.
13: What is sinus tachycardia?
Correct Answer: Sinus Tachycardia
1. Sinus rhythm with rate >100 bpm; normal P waves and QRS.
2. Treat underlying cause: pain, fever, dehydration, anxiety.
, 14: What is ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib)?
Correct Answer: V-Fib
1. Chaotic, disorganized ventricular activity with no cardiac output.
2. Requires immediate defibrillation and CPR.
15: Which statement by a client indicates a need for further teaching about sodium restriction?
Correct Answer: "I can eat whatever food as long as I don't put table salt/extra salt on it"
1. Many processed foods contain hidden sodium; reading labels is essential.
2. The patient mistakenly believes only table salt matters.
16: Which patient would be a bigger priority?
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation patient with syncope and a low BP
1. Syncope + hypotension suggests RVR (rapid ventricular response) compromising cardiac output.
2. Higher priority than asymptomatic AFib.
17: What cardiac enzyme is elevated after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Correct Answer: Troponin
1. Troponin is the most specific and sensitive marker for myocardial injury.
2. Rises within 4-6 hours, peaks at 12-24 hours, remains elevated for 7-10 days.
18: What is the most appropriate explanation for chest pain in a patient with coronary artery
disease (CAD)?
Correct Answer: "Chest pain is caused by decreased oxygen to the heart muscles."
1. Angina results from myocardial ischemia when oxygen demand exceeds supply.
2. This explanation is accurate and patient-friendly.
19: What precaution is needed for a patient with sickle cell anemia?
Correct Answer: Avoid infections
1. Infection can trigger vaso-occlusive crisis and worsen anemia.
2. Vaccinations and hand hygiene are critical.
20: What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a bone marrow patient?
Correct Answer: Risk for infection
1. Bone marrow suppression leads to neutropenia and immunocompromise.
2. Implement protective precautions.
21: What teaching should be given to a patient receiving radiation therapy?
Correct Answer: Avoid extreme temperatures
1. Radiation skin is sensitive; avoid heat, cold, and sun exposure to treated area.
2. Use mild soap and soft clothing.
CAD, Heart Failure, Dysrhythmias, PAD, DVT, Lab Values | Q&A | Grade A
| 100% Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: Cardiac & Perfusion – Hypertension, Coronary Artery Disease, Heart Failure, Dysrhythmias,
Peripheral Artery Disease, Venous Thromboembolism, Lab Interpretation, Pharmacology
Source: NSG 430 Exam 2 Bank – Latest 2026/2027 Curriculum
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
Total Questions: 136 (All processed – no omissions, no truncation)
1: What indicates that furosemide is NOT effective in a patient?
Correct Answer: Bilateral pitting edema
1. Persistent or worsening edema indicates inadequate diuresis.
2. Assess daily weights and I&O; notify provider if no response.
2: What indicates that furosemide and potassium supplementation are working effectively?
Correct Answer: 3lb weight loss and diuresis
1. Weight loss of 1-2 lbs/day reflects successful diuresis without dehydration.
2. Monitor potassium levels to prevent hypokalemia.
3: What is a side effect of furosemide?
Correct Answer: A potassium of 3.1 (can cause hypokalemia)
1. Loop diuretics cause potassium wasting; normal range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L.
2. Monitor for muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, and administer potassium supplements or potassium-sparing
diuretics.
4: What is the most important cancer prevention strategy?
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
1. Tobacco use causes 30% of all cancer deaths, including lung, bladder, and head/neck cancers.
2. Smoking cessation reduces risk even after decades of use.
5: What are early symptoms of hypertension?
Correct Answer: No symptoms
1. Hypertension is the "silent killer" – often asymptomatic until target organ damage occurs.
2. Regular screening is essential for early detection.
,6: A nurse walks into a room and finds a male patient with Von Willebrand Disease (hemophilia) on
the floor with a UAP. What is the priority action?
Correct Answer: A male patient with Von Willebrand Disease found on the floor with a UAP
1. Assess patient for bleeding, injury, and level of consciousness first.
2. Von Willebrand patients have bleeding risk; check for head trauma or joint bleeding.
7: ECG shows ventricular tachycardia. What is the priority response?
Correct Answer: Check for a pulse
1. Differentiate between pulseless VT (cardiac arrest) and stable VT with pulse.
2. If pulseless, start CPR and defibrillate. If pulse present, consider amiodarone or cardioversion.
8: What ECG finding indicates risk for ventricular tachycardia?
Correct Answer: PVC (premature ventricular contractions) – 3 or more PVCs = ventricular
tachycardia
1. Frequent PVCs (especially runs of 3+) degenerate into sustained VT.
2. Identify and treat underlying cause: electrolyte imbalance, ischemia, or stimulants.
9: What is a PVC (premature ventricular contraction)?
Correct Answer: PVC
1. Early ventricular depolarization; often benign unless frequent or multifocal.
2. Assess for underlying heart disease, caffeine, or stress.
10: What ECG finding is characteristic of atrial fibrillation (AFib)?
Correct Answer: AFIB (absent P wave)
1. AFib shows no discernible P waves and irregularly irregular rhythm.
2. Risk of thromboembolism; anticoagulation indicated.
11: What is ventricular tachycardia (V. Tach)?
Correct Answer: V.Tach
1. Wide QRS complex tachycardia originating in ventricles.
2. Can be monomorphic or polymorphic; sustained VT requires intervention.
12: What is sinus bradycardia characterized by on ECG?
Correct Answer: Sinus bradycardia (super slow, mostly straight line, basically dead)
1. Sinus bradycardia has normal P waves and QRS but rate <60 bpm.
2. Symptomatic bradycardia (hypotension, altered mental status) requires atropine or pacing.
13: What is sinus tachycardia?
Correct Answer: Sinus Tachycardia
1. Sinus rhythm with rate >100 bpm; normal P waves and QRS.
2. Treat underlying cause: pain, fever, dehydration, anxiety.
, 14: What is ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib)?
Correct Answer: V-Fib
1. Chaotic, disorganized ventricular activity with no cardiac output.
2. Requires immediate defibrillation and CPR.
15: Which statement by a client indicates a need for further teaching about sodium restriction?
Correct Answer: "I can eat whatever food as long as I don't put table salt/extra salt on it"
1. Many processed foods contain hidden sodium; reading labels is essential.
2. The patient mistakenly believes only table salt matters.
16: Which patient would be a bigger priority?
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation patient with syncope and a low BP
1. Syncope + hypotension suggests RVR (rapid ventricular response) compromising cardiac output.
2. Higher priority than asymptomatic AFib.
17: What cardiac enzyme is elevated after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Correct Answer: Troponin
1. Troponin is the most specific and sensitive marker for myocardial injury.
2. Rises within 4-6 hours, peaks at 12-24 hours, remains elevated for 7-10 days.
18: What is the most appropriate explanation for chest pain in a patient with coronary artery
disease (CAD)?
Correct Answer: "Chest pain is caused by decreased oxygen to the heart muscles."
1. Angina results from myocardial ischemia when oxygen demand exceeds supply.
2. This explanation is accurate and patient-friendly.
19: What precaution is needed for a patient with sickle cell anemia?
Correct Answer: Avoid infections
1. Infection can trigger vaso-occlusive crisis and worsen anemia.
2. Vaccinations and hand hygiene are critical.
20: What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a bone marrow patient?
Correct Answer: Risk for infection
1. Bone marrow suppression leads to neutropenia and immunocompromise.
2. Implement protective precautions.
21: What teaching should be given to a patient receiving radiation therapy?
Correct Answer: Avoid extreme temperatures
1. Radiation skin is sensitive; avoid heat, cold, and sun exposure to treated area.
2. Use mild soap and soft clothing.
