NUR2502 Final Exam Kahoot Questions & Answers
Updated: Multidimensional Care III / MDC 3 -
Rasmussen
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure presents with
dyspnea, crackles, and 3+ pitting edema. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Encourage bed rest only
B. Administer IV diuretics, oxygen, and monitor daily weights
C. Give a high-sodium diet
D. Hold all medications
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute heart failure exacerbation requires immediate reduction
of fluid overload. IV diuretics remove excess fluid, oxygen improves
oxygenation, and daily weights are the most accurate measure of fluid
status. High sodium is contraindicated as it worsens fluid retention .
2. Which is NOT an early sign of left-sided heart failure?
A. Nocturnal cough
B. Edema
C. Fatigue
D. Feeling of heaviness in arms/legs
Answer: B
Rationale: Edema is a sign of right-sided heart failure, not left-sided. Left-
,sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion (crackles, cough, dyspnea)
and decreased cardiac output (fatigue). Heaviness in extremities can occur
with decreased perfusion, but edema is specifically a right-sided failure
finding .
3. A patient has ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The nurse
knows the immediate priority is:
A. Administer IV morphine only
B. Prepare for reperfusion therapy (PCI or thrombolytics)
C. Hold all cardiac medications
D. Encourage ambulation immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: "Time is muscle" in STEMI. Rapid reperfusion (percutaneous
coronary intervention within 90 minutes or thrombolytics if PCI
unavailable) is critical to limit myocardial damage and improve survival.
Morphine may be given for pain but is not the priority action .
4. Telemetry shows a regular narrow QRS complex at 160 bpm with no
discernible P waves. What is the most likely rhythm?
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
C. Sinus tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
Answer: B
*Rationale: SVT presents with a narrow QRS complex (less than 0.12
seconds), regular rhythm, heart rate typically 150-250 bpm, and absent
,or hidden P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would show wide QRS. Atrial
fibrillation is irregularly irregular. Sinus tachycardia has visible P waves .*
5. First-line treatment for unstable SVT with hypotension is:
A. IV adenosine
B. Synchronized cardioversion
C. Oral beta-blocker
D. Observation
Answer: B
Rationale: Unstable patients with SVT (hypotension, altered mental status,
chest pain, signs of shock) require immediate synchronized cardioversion.
Adenosine is used for stable SVT. Beta-blockers are not first-line for acute
unstable SVT .
6. A patient with heart failure has a BNP level of 800 pg/mL. The nurse
interprets this as:
A. Normal
B. Elevated, indicating fluid overload and HF exacerbation
C. Low risk
D. Irrelevant
Answer: B
*Rationale: BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) is released from ventricular
myocytes in response to increased wall tension from fluid overload.
Normal BNP is less than 100 pg/mL. Levels above 400 pg/mL are
strongly associated with heart failure, and higher levels correlate with
severity .*
, 7. The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected pericarditis. Which
indicator is considered the most characteristic symptom?
A. Chest pain
B. Fatigue
C. Orthopnea
D. Dyspnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Chest pain is the hallmark symptom of pericarditis, typically
sharp and pleuritic, worsened by lying supine and relieved by sitting
forward. Fatigue, orthopnea, and dyspnea are more characteristic of heart
failure .
8. What blood test is most specific for detecting heart failure?
A. Troponin
B. CBC
C. BNP
D. ABG
Answer: C
Rationale: BNP is the most specific laboratory test for heart failure.
Troponin indicates myocardial injury (MI). CBC is nonspecific. ABG assesses
oxygenation and acid-base status, not specifically heart failure .
9. A patient with atrial fibrillation and rapid ventricular response (RVR) is
hemodynamically stable. What is the priority intervention?
A. Immediate cardioversion
B. Rate control with beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker
Updated: Multidimensional Care III / MDC 3 -
Rasmussen
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure presents with
dyspnea, crackles, and 3+ pitting edema. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Encourage bed rest only
B. Administer IV diuretics, oxygen, and monitor daily weights
C. Give a high-sodium diet
D. Hold all medications
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute heart failure exacerbation requires immediate reduction
of fluid overload. IV diuretics remove excess fluid, oxygen improves
oxygenation, and daily weights are the most accurate measure of fluid
status. High sodium is contraindicated as it worsens fluid retention .
2. Which is NOT an early sign of left-sided heart failure?
A. Nocturnal cough
B. Edema
C. Fatigue
D. Feeling of heaviness in arms/legs
Answer: B
Rationale: Edema is a sign of right-sided heart failure, not left-sided. Left-
,sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion (crackles, cough, dyspnea)
and decreased cardiac output (fatigue). Heaviness in extremities can occur
with decreased perfusion, but edema is specifically a right-sided failure
finding .
3. A patient has ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The nurse
knows the immediate priority is:
A. Administer IV morphine only
B. Prepare for reperfusion therapy (PCI or thrombolytics)
C. Hold all cardiac medications
D. Encourage ambulation immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: "Time is muscle" in STEMI. Rapid reperfusion (percutaneous
coronary intervention within 90 minutes or thrombolytics if PCI
unavailable) is critical to limit myocardial damage and improve survival.
Morphine may be given for pain but is not the priority action .
4. Telemetry shows a regular narrow QRS complex at 160 bpm with no
discernible P waves. What is the most likely rhythm?
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
C. Sinus tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
Answer: B
*Rationale: SVT presents with a narrow QRS complex (less than 0.12
seconds), regular rhythm, heart rate typically 150-250 bpm, and absent
,or hidden P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would show wide QRS. Atrial
fibrillation is irregularly irregular. Sinus tachycardia has visible P waves .*
5. First-line treatment for unstable SVT with hypotension is:
A. IV adenosine
B. Synchronized cardioversion
C. Oral beta-blocker
D. Observation
Answer: B
Rationale: Unstable patients with SVT (hypotension, altered mental status,
chest pain, signs of shock) require immediate synchronized cardioversion.
Adenosine is used for stable SVT. Beta-blockers are not first-line for acute
unstable SVT .
6. A patient with heart failure has a BNP level of 800 pg/mL. The nurse
interprets this as:
A. Normal
B. Elevated, indicating fluid overload and HF exacerbation
C. Low risk
D. Irrelevant
Answer: B
*Rationale: BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) is released from ventricular
myocytes in response to increased wall tension from fluid overload.
Normal BNP is less than 100 pg/mL. Levels above 400 pg/mL are
strongly associated with heart failure, and higher levels correlate with
severity .*
, 7. The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected pericarditis. Which
indicator is considered the most characteristic symptom?
A. Chest pain
B. Fatigue
C. Orthopnea
D. Dyspnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Chest pain is the hallmark symptom of pericarditis, typically
sharp and pleuritic, worsened by lying supine and relieved by sitting
forward. Fatigue, orthopnea, and dyspnea are more characteristic of heart
failure .
8. What blood test is most specific for detecting heart failure?
A. Troponin
B. CBC
C. BNP
D. ABG
Answer: C
Rationale: BNP is the most specific laboratory test for heart failure.
Troponin indicates myocardial injury (MI). CBC is nonspecific. ABG assesses
oxygenation and acid-base status, not specifically heart failure .
9. A patient with atrial fibrillation and rapid ventricular response (RVR) is
hemodynamically stable. What is the priority intervention?
A. Immediate cardioversion
B. Rate control with beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker
