Rasmussen College mDC2 exam 1 Questions anD answeRs aCtual
exam 2026/2027 – Complete exam-style Questions with DetaileD
Rationales | pass guaRanteeD – a+ gRaDeD
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 1-25)
**Q1.** A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which
laboratory value places the client at highest risk for digoxin toxicity?
A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
B. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Serum calcium of 9.5 mg/dL
D. Serum magnesium of 2.0 mEq/L
**Answer:** B
**Rationale:** Hypokalemia (low potassium) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because
digoxin binds to the same site on the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. A potassium level of 3.2
mEq/L is below normal (3.5-5.0). The nurse should monitor potassium levels closely and report
hypokalemia to the provider.
---
**Q2.** A client with acute decompensated heart failure presents with crackles in both lung
bases, 3+ pitting edema in the lower extremities, and jugular vein distension. Which priority
medication does the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Lisinopril
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide
D. Metoprolol
, **Answer:** C
**Rationale:** Furosemide is a loop diuretic that rapidly reduces preload, relieving pulmonary
congestion and edema. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) and metoprolol (beta-blocker) are long-term
management medications. Digoxin improves contractility but does not provide immediate fluid
removal.
---
**Q3.** A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a nitroglycerin IV infusion for angina. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
B. Heart rate 88 beats per minute
C. Headache
D. Facial flushing
**Answer:** A
**Rationale:** Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that can cause significant hypotension. A
blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg may indicate excessive vasodilation and risk of inadequate
perfusion. The nurse should notify the provider and may need to decrease or stop the infusion.
Headache and flushing (C, D) are common side effects but not immediately dangerous.
---
**Q4.** A client with heart failure is being discharged. Which statement by the client indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. "I will weigh myself daily at the same time each morning."
B. "I will limit my sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day."
C. "I will take my diuretic medication at bedtime."
D. "I will report any sudden weight gain of 2-3 pounds in a day."
**Answer:** C
exam 2026/2027 – Complete exam-style Questions with DetaileD
Rationales | pass guaRanteeD – a+ gRaDeD
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 1-25)
**Q1.** A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which
laboratory value places the client at highest risk for digoxin toxicity?
A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
B. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Serum calcium of 9.5 mg/dL
D. Serum magnesium of 2.0 mEq/L
**Answer:** B
**Rationale:** Hypokalemia (low potassium) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because
digoxin binds to the same site on the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. A potassium level of 3.2
mEq/L is below normal (3.5-5.0). The nurse should monitor potassium levels closely and report
hypokalemia to the provider.
---
**Q2.** A client with acute decompensated heart failure presents with crackles in both lung
bases, 3+ pitting edema in the lower extremities, and jugular vein distension. Which priority
medication does the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Lisinopril
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide
D. Metoprolol
, **Answer:** C
**Rationale:** Furosemide is a loop diuretic that rapidly reduces preload, relieving pulmonary
congestion and edema. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) and metoprolol (beta-blocker) are long-term
management medications. Digoxin improves contractility but does not provide immediate fluid
removal.
---
**Q3.** A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a nitroglycerin IV infusion for angina. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
B. Heart rate 88 beats per minute
C. Headache
D. Facial flushing
**Answer:** A
**Rationale:** Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that can cause significant hypotension. A
blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg may indicate excessive vasodilation and risk of inadequate
perfusion. The nurse should notify the provider and may need to decrease or stop the infusion.
Headache and flushing (C, D) are common side effects but not immediately dangerous.
---
**Q4.** A client with heart failure is being discharged. Which statement by the client indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. "I will weigh myself daily at the same time each morning."
B. "I will limit my sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day."
C. "I will take my diuretic medication at bedtime."
D. "I will report any sudden weight gain of 2-3 pounds in a day."
**Answer:** C
