NURS 201 Medical-Surgical Nursing Week 5 Quiz 2026 |WCU
1. A patient presents with a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram (ECG) change should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. Prolonged QT interval
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) typically causes tall, peaked T waves, a
widened QRS complex, and prolonged PR intervals.
2. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia
during general anesthesia?
A. Hyperthermia as the first sign
B. Bradycardia
C. Muscle rigidity
D. Decreased end-tidal CO2
Answer: C
Rationale: Rigidity of the skeletal muscles is a key early sign of malignant hyperthermia,
along with unexplained tachycardia and rising end-tidal CO2 levels. Fever is often a late
sign.
,3. A nurse is caring for a patient with a sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which
nursing intervention is a priority?
A. Administering a 0.45% normal saline infusion
B. Implementing seizure precautions
C. Encouraging increased oral water intake
D. Administering a loop diuretic
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyponatremia puts the patient at high risk for cerebral edema and seizures.
Safety and seizure precautions are the nursing priority.
4. The nurse is reviewing arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 50
mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: D
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a normal
bicarbonate (HCO3) indicates the cause is respiratory.
5. During the preoperative assessment, a patient reports taking aspirin daily.
The nurse should notify the surgeon because aspirin increases the risk for:
A. Excessive bleeding
B. Postoperative infection
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Delayed wound healing
Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation, significantly
increasing the risk of intraoperative and postoperative hemorrhage.
, 6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur in a patient with chronic
kidney disease?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: D
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for excreting magnesium; in chronic kidney
disease, magnesium levels can rise because the kidneys cannot clear it efficiently.
7. A patient has a positive Chvostek’s sign. The nurse expects the laboratory
results to show which imbalance?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign (facial twitching when the facial nerve is tapped) is a classic
indicator of hypocalcemia or hypomagnesemia.
8. What is the primary purpose of having a patient sign an informed consent
form before surgery?
A. To ensure the patient understands the risks and benefits
B. To protect the hospital from lawsuits
C. To verify the patient’s insurance coverage
D. To allow the nurse to explain the surgical procedure
Answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent ensures the patient has a clear understanding of the
procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives as explained by the surgeon.
1. A patient presents with a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram (ECG) change should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. Prolonged QT interval
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) typically causes tall, peaked T waves, a
widened QRS complex, and prolonged PR intervals.
2. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia
during general anesthesia?
A. Hyperthermia as the first sign
B. Bradycardia
C. Muscle rigidity
D. Decreased end-tidal CO2
Answer: C
Rationale: Rigidity of the skeletal muscles is a key early sign of malignant hyperthermia,
along with unexplained tachycardia and rising end-tidal CO2 levels. Fever is often a late
sign.
,3. A nurse is caring for a patient with a sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which
nursing intervention is a priority?
A. Administering a 0.45% normal saline infusion
B. Implementing seizure precautions
C. Encouraging increased oral water intake
D. Administering a loop diuretic
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyponatremia puts the patient at high risk for cerebral edema and seizures.
Safety and seizure precautions are the nursing priority.
4. The nurse is reviewing arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 50
mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: D
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a normal
bicarbonate (HCO3) indicates the cause is respiratory.
5. During the preoperative assessment, a patient reports taking aspirin daily.
The nurse should notify the surgeon because aspirin increases the risk for:
A. Excessive bleeding
B. Postoperative infection
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Delayed wound healing
Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation, significantly
increasing the risk of intraoperative and postoperative hemorrhage.
, 6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur in a patient with chronic
kidney disease?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: D
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for excreting magnesium; in chronic kidney
disease, magnesium levels can rise because the kidneys cannot clear it efficiently.
7. A patient has a positive Chvostek’s sign. The nurse expects the laboratory
results to show which imbalance?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign (facial twitching when the facial nerve is tapped) is a classic
indicator of hypocalcemia or hypomagnesemia.
8. What is the primary purpose of having a patient sign an informed consent
form before surgery?
A. To ensure the patient understands the risks and benefits
B. To protect the hospital from lawsuits
C. To verify the patient’s insurance coverage
D. To allow the nurse to explain the surgical procedure
Answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent ensures the patient has a clear understanding of the
procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives as explained by the surgeon.
