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BIOL251 Human Anatomy & Physiology I w/Lab 2026 | Module 5 Exam Review | 130+ Questions and Answers with Rationales | LockDown Browser | Portage Learning

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BIOL251 Human Anatomy & Physiology I w/Lab 2026 | Module 5 Exam Review | 130+ Questions and Answers with Rationales | LockDown Browser | Portage Learning

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BIOL251 Human Anatomy & Physiology I W/Lab 2026 |
Course
BIOL251 Human Anatomy & Physiology I w/Lab 2026 |

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BIOL251 Human Anatomy & Physiology I w/Lab 2026 |
Module 5 Exam Review | 130+ Questions and Answers
with Rationales | LockDown Browser | Portage
Learning



1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A) Support B)
Mineral storage C) Hormone production D) Blood cell production Answer: C
Rationale: A) Support isANSWER—the skeleton provides structural support for the
body. B) Mineral storage isANSWER—bones store calcium and phosphorus. C)
Hormone production is NOT a primary function; while osteocalcin is produced by
bone, it is not considered a major endocrine function of the skeletal system, making
this the best answer. D) Blood cell production isANSWER—hematopoiesis occurs in
red bone marrow.
2. The periosteum is composed of which two layers? A) Outer fibrous and inner cellular
layers B) Outer compact and inner spongy layers C) Outer cartilage and inner bone
layers D) Outer elastic and inner collagen layers Answer: A Rationale: A)ANSWER—
the periosteum has an outer fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue and an
inner cellular (cambium) layer containing osteogenic cells. B) Incorrect—compact
and spongy refer to bone tissue types, not periosteal layers. C) Incorrect—cartilage
is not part of the periosteum. D) Incorrect—elastic fibers are not the defining feature
of periosteal layers.
3. Which bone cell is responsible for bone resorption? A) Osteoblast B) Osteocyte C)
Osteoclast D) Osteogenic cell Answer: C Rationale: A) Osteoblasts build bone by
secreting osteoid. B) Osteocytes maintain bone tissue but do not resorb it.
C)ANSWER—osteoclasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down bone
matrix during remodeling. D) Osteogenic cells are stem cells that differentiate into
osteoblasts.
4. Endochondral ossification begins with which type of model? A) Fibrous membrane B)
Hyaline cartilage C) Elastic cartilage D) Dense irregular connective tissue Answer: B

, Rationale: A) Fibrous membranes are involved in intramembranous ossification.
B)ANSWER—endochondral ossification replaces a hyaline cartilage model with
bone. C) Elastic cartilage is found in the ear and epiglottis, not as a template for
bone formation. D) Dense irregular connective tissue does not serve as a model for
endochondral ossification.
5. Which hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclast activity? A)
Calcitonin B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C) Thyroxine D) Insulin Answer: B
Rationale: A) Calcitonin decreases blood calcium by inhibiting osteoclasts.
B)ANSWER—PTH increases blood calcium by stimulating osteoclasts, increasing
renal calcium reabsorption, and activating vitamin D. C) Thyroxine regulates
metabolism, not calcium homeostasis. D) Insulin regulates glucose, not calcium
levels.
6. The epiphyseal plate is responsible for: A) Bone width growth B) Bone length growth
C) Bone repair D) Bone mineralization Answer: B Rationale: A) Bone width growth
occurs via appositional growth at the periosteum. B)ANSWER—the epiphyseal plate
(growth plate) is the site of longitudinal bone growth in children and adolescents. C)
Bone repair involves callus formation, not the epiphyseal plate. D) Mineralization
occurs throughout bone matrix deposition, not specifically at the epiphyseal plate.
7. Which of the following bones is classified as irregular? A) Femur B) Sternum C)
Vertebra D) Patella Answer: C Rationale: A) Femur is a long bone. B) Sternum is a
flat bone. C)ANSWER—vertebrae have complex shapes that do not fit other
categories, making them irregular bones. D) Patella is a sesamoid bone.
8. The medullary cavity of long bones contains: A) Red bone marrow only B) Yellow
bone marrow only C) Both red and yellow bone marrow depending on age D)
Hyaline cartilage Answer: C Rationale: A) Incorrect—in infants, the medullary cavity
contains red marrow, but this changes with age. B) Incorrect—in adults, yellow
marrow predominates, but red marrow is still present in some areas. C)ANSWER—
infants have mostly red marrow; with age, much converts to yellow marrow, though
red marrow persists in axial skeleton bones. D) Hyaline cartilage is found at articular
surfaces, not in the medullary cavity.
9. Which process describes bone formation within fibrous connective tissue
membranes? A) Endochondral ossification B) Intramembranous ossification C)
Appositional growth D) Calcification Answer: B Rationale: A) Endochondral
ossification uses a cartilage model. B)ANSWER—intramembranous ossification
forms flat bones (e.g., skull, clavicle) directly within mesenchymal tissue. C)

, Appositional growth increases bone diameter. D) Calcification is mineral deposition,
not a specific ossification process.
10. Osteoporosis is characterized by: A) Increased bone density B) Excessive osteoblast
activity C) Decreased bone mass and increased fracture risk D) Overproduction of
collagen Answer: C Rationale: A) Osteoporosis involves decreased, not increased,
bone density. B) Osteoblast activity is typically reduced or imbalanced with
osteoclast activity. C)ANSWER—osteoporosis results from bone resorption
exceeding formation, leading to porous, fragile bones. D) Collagen production is not
the primary issue; mineral loss and microarchitectural deterioration are key.
11. Which of the following is a function of articular cartilage? A) Produce synovial fluid B)
Reduce friction and absorb shock at joints C) Attach muscle to bone D) Store
calcium Answer: B Rationale: A) Synovial fluid is produced by the synovial
membrane, not articular cartilage. B)ANSWER—articular cartilage is smooth hyaline
cartilage that minimizes friction and distributes loads at synovial joints. C) Tendons
attach muscle to bone. D) Calcium storage occurs in bone matrix, not cartilage.
12. The primary ossification center in endochondral ossification forms in the: A)
Epiphysis B) Diaphysis C) Metaphysis D) Periosteum Answer: B Rationale: A)
Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses. B)ANSWER—the primary
ossification center develops in the diaphysis (shaft) of the cartilage model. C) The
metaphysis contains the epiphyseal plate but is not where the primary center forms.
D) The periosteum contributes to appositional growth, not primary ossification.
13. Which cell type originates from hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow? A)
Osteoblast B) Osteocyte C) Osteoclast D) Osteogenic cell Answer: C Rationale: A)
Osteoblasts derive from mesenchymal stem cells. B) Osteocytes are mature
osteoblasts trapped in matrix. C)ANSWER—osteoclasts arise from
monocyte/macrophage lineage of hematopoietic stem cells. D) Osteogenic cells are
mesenchymal-derived stem cells.
14. The process of bone remodeling involves: A) Only osteoblasts B) Only osteoclasts
C) Coordinated activity of osteoclasts and osteoblasts D) Chondrocytes exclusively
Answer: C Rationale: A & B) Incorrect—remodeling requires both resorption and
formation. C)ANSWER—osteoclasts resorb old bone, followed by osteoblasts
depositing new bone. D) Chondrocytes are cartilage cells, not involved in bone
remodeling.

, 15. Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in the intestine? A) Vitamin A B)
Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K Answer: C Rationale: A) Vitamin A supports
vision and immunity. B) Vitamin C is needed for collagen synthesis. C)ANSWER—
vitamin D (calcitriol) promotes intestinal calcium absorption. D) Vitamin K is important
for blood clotting and bone protein modification, but not primary for calcium
absorption.
16. A fracture where the bone is broken but does not penetrate the skin is called: A)
Compound fracture B) Comminuted fracture C) Simple fracture D) Greenstick
fracture Answer: C Rationale: A) Compound (open) fractures break through the skin.
B) Comminuted refers to bone shattered into multiple pieces. C)ANSWER—simple
(closed) fractures do not break the skin. D) Greenstick fractures are incomplete
breaks common in children.
17. Which of the following is NOT part of the axial skeleton? A) Skull B) Vertebral
column C) Rib cage D) Clavicle Answer: D Rationale: A, B, C) These are all axial
skeleton components. D)ANSWER—the clavicle is part of the appendicular skeleton
(pectoral girdle).
18. The foramen magnum is located in which bone? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Occipital
D) Temporal Answer: C Rationale: A) Frontal bone forms the forehead. B) Parietal
bones form the sides and roof of the cranium. C)ANSWER—the foramen magnum is
the large opening in the occipital bone for the spinal cord. D) Temporal bones house
structures of the ear.
19. Which suture connects the parietal bones to the frontal bone? A) Lambdoid B)
Sagittal C) Coronal D) Squamous Answer: C Rationale: A) Lambdoid suture joins
occipital and parietal bones. B) Sagittal suture connects the two parietal bones.
C)ANSWER—the coronal suture runs between frontal and parietal bones. D)
Squamous suture connects temporal and parietal bones.
20. The mandible articulates with which bone? A) Zygomatic B) Temporal C) Maxilla D)
Sphenoid Answer: B Rationale: A) Zygomatic forms the cheekbone but does not
articulate with mandible. B)ANSWER—the mandibular condyle articulates with the
mandibular fossa of the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). C)
Maxilla forms the upper jaw; mandible is lower jaw, but they do not directly articulate.
D) Sphenoid is central but not a direct articulation point for mandible.
21. Which vertebral region has ribs attached? A) Cervical B) Thoracic C) Lumbar D)
Sacral Answer: B Rationale: A) Cervical vertebrae support the neck; no ribs.

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